knowseverything844

What is the purpose of installing a router in a home network?

Calculate the molar mass of water (H2O) by adding up the atomic masses of hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O) atoms. Remember to consider the number of atoms in the molecule when calculating the molar mass.

Given that polyurethane is a huge polymer, why is it importantthat the polyurethanase is a secreted enzyme

What was the purpose of the dry filter paper

what was the purpose of the dry filter paper

Why is it important to pull the inoculating needle out of theFTM via the same path you inserted it

What does the pink band in the FTM indicate

what will be the main consequences of blocking lateral movementwithin the lipid biloyer?

In reference to a smoker that was diagnosed with COPD (mostpeople with COPD have emphysema or chronic bronchitis):

Explain why emphysema patients have a higher than normalhematocrit.

why is it important to keep the inoculating needle

what dose the pink band in the FTM indicated?

Electric organs rely on a) electric organ discharges for electroreception b) G-protein coupled receptors for signal transduction c) the blocking of K+ channels in the lateral line d) opening of mechanically gated Na+ channels which leads to action potential generation.

Why is FTM typically pink at the topand colorless in the middle and bottom of the tube? Explain.

1.) Why is it important to keep the inoculating needle from gougingthe agar surface?

2.) Why don't bacteria (escpecially motile forms) grow throughoutan agar medium, which is 97% water?

Describe the normal aging processes associated with the lung.
- Identify the steps of gas transport in the pulmonary circulation.
- Know and understand the differences in obstructive and restrictive pulmonary disease.
- Identify the pathophysiology and differences in:
-emphysema
- asthma
-chronic bronchitis
Name and describe alterations in breathing patterns. (Kussmaul vs. Cheyne-Stokes) – (See PPT)
Differentiate between signs and symptoms of chronic and acute bronchitis.
Describe the difference in hypoxia, hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and hypocapnia. What symptoms might be seen with each?
What are signs that manifest with a patient in respiratory distress? (ex. dyspnea, flaring nostrils, retractions, etc…)
What is the primary function of ventilation in the pulmonary system?
What are the clinical manifestations of a patient in pulmonary edema?
How does emphysema affect oxygenation and ventilation?
Describe the pathophysiologic features of:
tuberculosis
pneumonia
lung abscess
pneumoconiosis
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
What is the most common contributor of lung cancer?
What are the symptoms associated with hemoptysis?
Know and understand different restrictive pulmonary disorders.
(i.e. pneumothorax, pleural effusion)
-what drives individuals to breath. describe the differences between the two

What is the use of ISATAP?

How would you explain the presence of bacterial growth in thecontrol FTM tube

- Describe the function of the alveolus.
- Describe three functions of the respiratory center in the brain stem.
- Describe the elastic properties of the lung and chest wall.
- Identify normal CO2, pH and PaO2 levels.
- Review the Acid/Base PPT from Exam 1 especially: normal blood gas values of CO2, pH, PaO2 and HCO3
- Identify respiratory acidosis from respiratory alkalosis when given an ABG
' -Describe the normal aging processes associated with the lung.
- Identify the steps of gas transport in the pulmonary circulation.
- Know and understand the differences in obstructive and restrictive pulmonary disease.
- Identify the pathophysiology and differences in:
-emphysema
- asthma
-chronic bronchitis
Name and describe alterations in breathing patterns. (Kussmaul vs. Cheyne-Stokes) – (See PPT)
Differentiate between signs and symptoms of chronic and acute bronchitis.
Describe the difference in hypoxia, hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and hypocapnia. What symptoms might be seen with each?
What are signs that manifest with a patient in respiratory distress? (ex. dyspnea, flaring nostrils, retractions, etc…)
What is the primary function of ventilation in the pulmonary system?
What are the clinical manifestations of a patient in pulmonary edema?
How does emphysema affect oxygenation and ventilation?
Describe the pathophysiologic features of:
tuberculosis
pneumonia
lung abscess
pneumoconiosis
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
What is the most common contributor of lung cancer?
What are the symptoms associated with hemoptysis?
Know and understand different restrictive pulmonary disorders.
(i.e. pneumothorax, pleural effusion)

What is On Tap facility?

PROBLEMS FOR PRACTICE

1. When gaseous HI is irradiated with radiation of 2350 A wavelength, it is observed that 1.85 • 10*2 mole decomposes per 1000 cal of radiant energy absorbed. Calculate the quantum efficiency of the reaction
[Ans. 1.9]

2. A certain system absorbs 3.0 • 1016 quanta of light per second. On irradiation for 20 minutes,
0.002 mole of the reactant was found to have reacted. Calculate the quantum efficiency of the process.
[Ans. 0.669]

1. Tracey is constructing a frequency distribution using bowling scores. the lowest number of the set of scores is 40, and the highest is 189. if tracey decides to group the numbers into 15 intervals, what would the width of the interval be?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) insufficient information 

2. In a group of 10 scores, the largest score is increased by 48 points. what effect will this have on the mean of the scores? 

a) it will remain unchanged

b) it will increase by 48 points

c) it will increase by 4.8 points

d) not enough information 

4. If a 2 mm thick plate of material transmits 70% of the incident light, what percentage will be transmitted by a 0.5 mm thick plate?

Discuss the utility of the SCSI devices.

Which of the following statements regarding voltage-gated sodium channels are TRUE? Choose all of the correct answers.

1. In the electron-transport chain from Deinococcus geothermalis, the enzyme _______________ is not present or has not yet been characterized.

a. NADH dehydrogenase

b. succinate dehydrogenase

c. cytochrome c reductase

d. cytochrome c oxidase

2. In Deinococcus geothermalis, which enzyme can oxidize UQH₂ (or its analog in D. geothermalis)?

a. cytochrome c reductase

b. cytochrome c reductase, cbb3-type

c. cytochrome c oxidase

d. cytochrome bd complex

Match the following terms with the best related term.

1) An enzyme that adds nucleotides together based on the stretch of DNA that is being replicated.

2) The process of using DNA as a template for making RNA.

3) RNA that is incorporated as part of the ribosome structure.

4) The structure were proteins are synthesized.

5) The process of using RNA as a template for making a protein.

6) RNA that transfers amino acids to the ribosome to be added to a growing protein chain.

7) RNA that is used as the blueprint for making a protein.

TERMS:

a) transcription b) translation c) ribosome d) tRNA e) rRNA f) mRNA g) DNA polymerase

Many eukaryotic genes have regions called enhances. What is an enhancer?

a. RNA polymerase binds here to begin transcription. b. a DNA sequence close to the promoter where a specific protein can bing to activate translationc. c. DNA seqeuence far from the promotoer where a specific protein can bind to activate transcription. d. ribosomes bind here to begin translation e. snRNP's bind here

Which of the following grape varieties is least commonly used for premium white wine??

A. Chardonnay

B. Gewürztraminer

C. Riesling

D. Sylvaner

What product would most likely be marketed as hormone-free?

Which list contains a food that a vegan would NOT consume?

soft drink, French fries, chips

legumes, wild rice, mashed potatoes

peanut butter, white bread, soy milk

corn, margarine, pasta with tomato sauce

honey, chopped nuts, berries

Which meal would you suggest for a lacto-ovo vegetarian?

turkey breast and mustard on whole-wheat bread

grilled tilapia with broccoli

toast with bacon, cheese, and a glass of 2% milk

sausage with bell peppers on a bun

egg omelet with mushrooms and spinach

When a person becomes deficient in calcium, what will increase as a consequence?

bioavailability of calcium

remodeling of calcium

absorption and remodeling of calcium

absorption and bioavailability of calcium

absorption of calcium

Which electrolytes are involved in maintaining fluid balance in the body?

sodium, potassium, and chloride

potassium, magnesium, and chloride

water, sodium, and chloride

water, sodium and potassium

sodium, potassium, and magnesium

Hypokalemia is a deficiency of which mineral?

iron

calcium

magnesium

sulfur

potassium

Which list contains a food that a vegan would NOT consume?

soft drink, French fries, chips

legumes, wild rice, mashed potatoes

peanut butter, white bread, soy milk

corn, margarine, pasta with tomato sauce

honey, chopped nuts, berries

Which food may increase cancer risk?

food high in sugar because of high glycemic response

processed meats because of nitrates/nitrites

refined grains because of loss of antioxidant vitamins

dairy because of trans fatty acids

soy foods because of hormone-like phytoestrogens

Which are more bioavailable in plant foods than in animal foods?

vitamin D and cholesterol

zinc and riboflavin

calcium and iron

vitamin C and E

retinoids and thiamin

Which statement is NOT true about vegetarian children and teens?

Vegetarian teens consume more carbohydrates and sweets than nonvegetarian teens.

Vegetarian teens have lower risk of obesity and chronic disease later in life.

Some vegan children can have reduced growth due to deficient protein and calories.

Lacto-ovo vegetarian children have similar growth to nonvegetarian children.

Vegetarian teens consume more fiber, folate, and vitamin C than nonvegetarian teens.

Which meal would you suggest for a lacto-ovo vegetarian?

turkey breast and mustard on whole-wheat bread

grilled tilapia with broccoli

toast with bacon, cheese, and a glass of 2% milk

sausage with bell peppers on a bun

egg omelet with mushrooms and spinach

Which fat-soluble vitamin can prevent the oxidation of LDL and potentially reduce risk of atherosclerosis?

both vitamins A and K

vitamin K

vitamin A

vitamin D

vitamin E

Calcification of soft tissues is a symptom of:

vitamin A deficiency.

vitamin D excess.

vitamin D deficiency.

vitamin A excess.

vitamin K excess.

Too much carotene intake can result in:

hypervitaminosis A.

high blood calcium levels.

keratinization.

excessive bleeding.

a yellowing of the skin.

Which would provide the HIGHEST amount of vitamin E per tablespoon?

sunflower oil

peanut butter

margarine

olive oil

canola oil

3. Which food item was the highest source of Protein perserving?

4. Which food had the highest source of Carbohydrates?

5. Which food provided the best source of fiber?

6. What advantage is it to have a diet high in solublefiber?

7. What are the advantages to having a higher amount ofvegetables in Todd's diet?

8. What food did Todd eat that was the best source ofPotassium?

9. Based on Todd's DRI he should consume 8mg of Iron per day,however; because of the bioavailability of iron in plants how muchiron should Todd consume daily since he doesn't get any of his ironfrom animal sources.

10. Vegetarians need to multiply their iron by what to make upfor the low bioavailability of iron in their diet.

On both days Todd surpasses his recommended Iron requirements.As stated in the book the upper levels of iron for adults is 45mg/day. What would be the result if his amounts exceeded 50 mg/dayand he had Iron Toxicity?

12. Vegan Vegetarians must rely on Complimenting Proteins inorder to get all the essential amino acids. Choose the bestcombination of foods that would provide the essential amino acidsof a complete protein.

In the Vegan diet there is a concern the individual may sufferfrom Vitamin B-12 deficiency. What precaution could be made inorder to avoid this problem?

Which Vegetarian diet will not eat meat but would eat dairyproducts and eggs.

18. Iron absorption is low in vegetarian diets however, whatvitamin helps to enhance iron absorption.

What individuals would be at risk with a vegan diet?

3. Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding carbohydrate structure and function?

Carbohydrates are a source of fiber in the diet.

Carbohydrates are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

Carbohydrates contain 9 kcal per gram.

Carbohydrates are composed of one or more sugar units.

Carbohydrate consumption reduces the use of protein for energy.

5.An oligosaccharide is a:

polysaccharide made up of numerous glucose units.

short-chain carbohydrate.

carbohydrate that consists of one sugar molecule.

long-chain carbohydrate.

polysaccharide made up of glycogen.

6. Which of the following foods contains the MOST grams of carbohydrates?

oatmeal, 1/2 cup

black beans, 1/4 cup

corn, 1/2 cup

raisins, 1/2 cup

yogurt (plain, low fat), 1 cup

7.Which portion of the whole grain contains the majority of dietary fiber and a significant amount of B vitamins and minerals?

endosperm

germ

bran

grain

kernel

8. In the small intestine, pancreatic amylase continues to break down starch, converting it to

sucrose.

salivary amylase.

polysaccharides.

galactose.

maltose and oligosaccharides.

9.Which stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin?

elevated glycogen in the liver

decreased blood glucose

ketoacidosis

elevated blood glucose

elevated ketone bodies in the blood

10.Insulin promotes conversion of excess glucose to glycogen in the:

skeletal and cardiac muscles only.

liver and adipose tissue.

brain, muscles, and liver.

liver, adipose tissue, and kidneys.

liver and skeletal muscles.

Prediabetes:

is triggered by an autoimmune disorder.

can be reversed by early lifestyle intervention.

can be managed, but not cured.

is diagnosed by the onset of ketoacidosis.

is due to loss of the ability of the pancreas to produce insulin.

Which is NOT a risk factor for type 2 diabetes?

genetics

gender

inactivity

obesity

poor nutrition

Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes results in higher risk of all of the following, EXCEPT:

autoimmune disorders.

kidney failure.

cardiovascular disease.

blindness.

limb amputations.

14. The oral glucose tolerance test includes the intake of:

75 g lactose and measured blood glucose levels 2 hours later.

50 g white bread and measured blood glucose levels 1 hour later.

50 g lactose and measured blood glucose levels 1 hour later.

50 g glucose and measured blood glucose levels 1 hour later.

75 g glucose and measured blood glucose levels 2 hours later.

Which is NOT true about gestational diabetes?

It increases the mother's future risk of type 1 diabetes.

It increases the infant's future risk of obesity.

It causes pregnancy complications.

It increases the infant's future risk of type 2 diabetes.

It resolves shortly after the woman gives birth.

Which of these clinical tests enables type 1 diabetes to be distinguished from type 2 diabetes?

lower insulin levels

higher ketone bodies in the blood

higher fasting blood glucose levels

higher glucose levels in the urine

higher oral glucose tolerance test values

17. Which changes in the urine are possible signs of diabetes?

increased volume and ketone bodie

increased acidity and ketone bodies

increased volume and darker color

increased mineral content

increased glucose and ketone bodies

18. Which oil provides the most alpha-linolenic acid?

corn oil

coconut oil

flaxseed oil

olive oil

fish oil

19. Which food combination does NOT contain cholesterol?

peanut butter and jelly sandwich

cereal and milk

cheese and macaroni

fish and French fries

ice cream sundae topped with nuts

20. You are purchasing a spread and want to avoid trans fatty acids. Which would you avoid since it is the most likely to contain trans fatty acids?

olive oil

partially hydrogenated vegetable oil

mayonnaise

fully hydrogenated vegetable oil

butter

which of these choices list all the products of starch digestion by pancreatic amylase
a: glucose
b: fructose and glucose
c: maltose and oligosaccharides
d: maltose and glucose

QUESTION 1

Which of these statements is correct?

1 points

QUESTION 2

What is the relative genetic distance between two linked genes if the recombination frequency is 0.32?

1 points

QUESTION 3

What statement best explains the distortion in Mendelian ratios observed by Bateson & Punnett in 1905? (Reminder: they found an overrepresentation of F2 offspring showing both dominant or recessive phenotypes, and an underrepresentation of offspring displaying one dominant and one recessive phenotype)

1 points

QUESTION 4

Researchers investigating the genome of the red imported fire ant, Solenopsis invicta, discovered that two genes are located about 100 base pairs apart on the same chromosome. They also found that the chromosome in question is undergoing no recombination at all. What is the relative genetic distance between those genes?

1 points

QUESTION 5

The two genes F and G, code for body size and aggressiveness, respectively. The F allele codes for a larger body size, and is dominant over f allele that codes for a smaller body size. The G allele codes for aggressive behavior, and is dominant over gallele that codes for docile behavior. You perform a Mendelian dihybrid cross (NOT a test cross) on these traits. If there is no recombination between these genes (recombination frequency = 0.00), what ratio should you see phenotypes in in the offspring? (note that the parent generation was made up of large aggressive ants and small docile ants.)

1 points

QUESTION 6

When determining the relative genetic distance between two genes, why is dihybrid back-cross preferable over traditional dihybrid cross?

Which of these statements is incorrect?

What is the relative genetic distance between two linked genesif the recombination frequency is 0.49?

What statement best explains the distortion in Mendelian ratiosobserved by Bateson & Punnett in 1905? (Reminder: they found anoverrepresentation of F2 offspring showing both dominant orrecessive phenotypes, and an underrepresentation of offspringdisplaying one dominant and one recessive phenotype)

When determining the relative genetic distance between twogenes, why is dihybrid back-cross preferable over traditionaldihybrid cross?

Why do we map genes?

Which of the following is not a function of mitosis in humans?

Question 3 options:

a)

repair of wounds

b)

growth

c)

production of gametes from diploid cells

d)

replacement of lost or damaged cells