xuanhoang

Describe your understanding of spirituality that expresses “the sacred within.” Discuss how the use of solitude, silence, imagination, and nature contribute to a sense of reverence for one’s own spirituality.

 What is the Python explain all items

What do you call people with unsatisfied wants and needs who have both the ability and the willingness to buy?

What do you call the statement often used interchangeably with vision and frequently has an inspirational theme?

3. From the management, result-driven, practical, and inspirational strategies implemented by Yuanqing at Lenovo, which struck you as something worth imitating? Explain your answer.

Python in all explain?

Answer===

What is a system for ordering items that have little or no value at the end of a sales​ period?

What is selection bias

What is post-resuscitation care?

What is preeclampsia?

What is nursing profession ?

the living tree of nursing

write a letter to the panel of judges asking for a new trail for Sarah good. In the letter, provide at least three reasons for the judges to grant Ms. Good a new trail and include specific quotes from the transcript below. write 200 words.

Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are the strongest research design for establishing cause and effect. Which of the following is the main limitation of RCTs?

a) RCTs may not be ethical for some studies.

b) RCT design cannot control for confounders.

c) Randomized controlled trials may have a disproportionate number of people exposed to the risk factor.

d) Randomized controlled trials are, by their very design, likely to be very biased towards an expected outcome.

How do I complete a block model by drawing the following geological structures on the plan view

(top) and all four sides of your block model:

● All map units are folded into an anticline with limbs dipping 30° towards the east and 30°

towards the west

● The anticline is cut by a right-lateral strike-slip fault that runs east-to-west and dips 70°

towards the north

Why couldn't you stand on the sun's surface?

A) The Sun has no surface at all, the photosphere is an illusion.

B) You could stand on the surface.

C) The Sun doesn't have a solid surface.

D) The Sun's surface is too highly magnetized for anything to survive there.

E) You could stand on it if a sufficiently protective spacesuit could be designed.

How does the sun go on shining?

2. Why does the sun rise in the east and set in the west?

An enhancer is?

a DNA element that stimulates transcription of eukaryotic promoters

binds to RNA polymerase and stimulates transcription

acts as a binding site for RNA polymerase

interacts with repressor proteins to enhance transcriptional repression.

QUESTION 1

Which of the following occur(s) during Pol II transcription preinitiation complex formation? (More than one correct answer possible. Mark all that apply).

A) TFIIB unwinds the DNA.

B) TFIIB contacts both TATA box-binding factor and the DNA.

C) DNA bends.

D) TFIIA binds to TFIIB.

Question 2

An enhancer (select all that apply)

A) is a DNA element that interacts directly with general transcription factors to enhance or repress transcription.

B) is a protein that binds to a promoter and enhances its activity.

C) is a protein that binds to RNA polymerase and enhances transcription.

D) interacts with repressor proteins to enhance transcriptional repression.

E) is a DNA control element that can be located at a great distance upstream or downstream of a promoter.

F) acts as a binding site for RNA polymerase.

QUESTION 3

An important early step before transcription initiation that leads to gene expression is

A) Rapid packaging of DNA into condensed chromatin assuring the activity of all the genes in eukaryotic cells except those whose transcription is repressed by specific negative regulatory mechanisms.

B) relief of transcription repression by chromatin remodeling and the removal of neucleosomes to transiently expose promoter DNA.

C) the coiling of DNA around a set of eight histones in the nucleosome.

D) DNA binding by TATA binding protein (TBP).

QUESTION 4

The activation domains of transcriptional activators

A) can be swapped with another activation domain to create a new chimeric transcription factor.

B) can interact directly with the promoter.

C) can facilitate transcription by catalyzing RNA polymerization

D)can bind to DNA.

QUESTION 5

The mediator complex

A) can form a molecular bridge between activators of transcription and DNA replication machinery.

B) can function to maintain nucleosomes at promoter regions in a hypoacetylated state (facilitating nucleosome stability and chromatin condensation).

C) transduces regulatory signals between activation (and repression) domains of transcription factors bound to distal DNA elements (e.g. enhancers) and RNA polymerase II by binding directly to both.

D) is a small, a 30-residue long protein that forms a molecular bridge between activation domains of transcription factors and their DNA binding domains.

QUESTION 6

Transcription factors can do all of the following EXCEPT

A) Synthesize RNA.

B) undergo conformational changes which alter activity.

C) act to repress transcription of transcription factor genes.

D) exist as heterodimers.

E) respond to extracellular signals.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following statements concerning the Mediator is correct?

A) Some of the mediator subunits bind to the DNA at distal sites and at enhancers while other subunits simultaneously bind the DNA at promoter proximal sequences.

B) Most of the yeast Mediator subunits are unique and have no homologs

in cells of higher eukaryotes (e.g. flies and humans).

C) The mediator acts as a bridge between transcription factors binding at distal sites and enhancers on the one hand and the basal transcription initiation machinery including RNA pol II at promoter sites.

D) The major mediator subunits can trace their evolutionary origin to bacterial σ factors.

E) All of the statements, including this one, are true.

QUESTION 1

One major challenge for the eukaryotic transcription machinery not faced by its prokaryotic counterpart is

A) transcribing complex transcription units into polycistronic mRNA as compared to the simple, typically monocistronic transcription units of prokaryotes.

B) is dealing with the fact that eukaryotic DNA is packaged into neucleosomes and higher-order forms of chromatin structure, while prokaryotic DNA is not.

C) is the need to engage transcription activators and disengage transcription repressors.

D) is unwinding the DNA to allow RNA polyemerase to transcribe the template-strand.

QUESTION 2

Which is the first factor to bind at the promoter of eukaryotic genes?

A) TFIIA

B) TATA box-binding protein

C) RNA polymerase

D) TFIIB

E) TFIIH

QUESTION 3

The fidelity of RNA pol II refers to

A) the enzyme's ability to identify the correct promoter from which to initiate transcription.

B) the enzyme's ability to initiate transcription without the need for a preexisting primer.

C) the enzyme's ability to proceed along the DNA while sequentially catalyzing the addition of new NTPs to the growing RNA chain, without detaching prematurely from the DNA.

D) the enzyme's ability to select the correct nucleotide to add to the growing RNA chain.

QUESTION 4

Are the following components of transcription regulation in eukaryotes cis-acting elements or trans-acting factors? (a.cis-acting element or b.trans-acting factor)

A) TATA-box

B) general transcription factors

C) enhancer

D) initiator

E) mediator

F) TATA-binding protein

This large and complex general transcription factor has a DNA helicase activity that exposes the template for RNA polymerase II transcription. It also has a kinase activity that phosphorylates the C-terminal domain of the polymerase on Ser5 leading to promoter clearance. It is...

a) TFIIB

b) TFIID

c) TFIIE

d) TFIIF

e) TFIIH

Place the events of eukaryotic transcription in the correct order

1. RNA polymerase disassociates from the DNA

2. TFIIH and TFIIE bind to the transcription initiation complex

3. The open complex becomes destabilized

4. TFIIB binds to the promoter and to TFIID

5. Cleavage enzymes recognize the polyA sequence and cleave mRNA

6. rNTP's base pair with DNA

7. RNA polymerase II forms phososphodiester bonds between rNTPs

8. TFIID binds to the TATA box

9. RNA polymerase transcribes the poly-A sequence

10. TFIIH disrupts hydrogen bonds between the 2 strands of DNA

11. RNA polymerase II binds to the promoter with TFII-F

12. TFIIH attached phosphate groups to the C-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II

1.) Which one of the following terms is used to describe the protein:DNA complex containing several transcription factors bound to a single enhancer?

A - enhanceosome

B - proteasome

C - chromosome

D - nucleosome

2.) The TATA box

A - is present in all eukaryotic genes.

B - acts to position RNA polymerase II for transcription initiation.

C - serves as a promoter sequence for genes transcribed by RNA polymerase III.

D - is located approximately 100 base pairs upstream of the start site for mRNAs.

3.) All the following elements can function as eukaryotic promoters EXCEPT:

A - an initiator element.

B - an enhancer.

C - CpG islands.

D - a TATA box.

4.) Which of the following is the correct order of binding of general transcription factors to initiate transcription at RNA polymerase II promoters?

A - TFIID, TFIIB, Pol II, TFIIH

B - TFIID, TFIIH, TFIIB, PolII

C - TFIIB, PolII, TFIIH, TFIID

D - PolII, TFIID, TFIIB, TFIIH

5.) What is the function of TFIIH in the transcription initiation complex?

A - unwinding the DNA duplex

B - catalyzing the synthesis of RNA

C - all are correct

D - binding to the TATA box

6.) Which serves as the promoter for 70% of eukaryotic genes and typically serves as a control region for genes that are transcribed at relatively low rates?

A - CpG islands

B - TATA box

C - enhancers

D - UAS (upstream activating sequences)

9. Secondary cell walls are stronger than primary cell walls because secondary cell walls contain

a. more pectin.

b. less lignin.

c. more chitin.

d. layers of cellulose fibrils at various orientations to one another.

11. The direction of cellulose microfibril synthesis in elongating plant cells is

a. parallel to the direction of cell elongation.

b. perpendicular to the direction of cell elongation.

c. perpendicular to the direction of microtubules under the plasma membrane.

d. parallel to the endoplasmic reticulum under the plasma membrane.

parallel to cortical microtubules under the plasma membrane.

1. Peptide hormones and growth factors act on target cells by binding to cell surface and _______ receptors.

a. endoplasmic reticulum

b. cytosolic

c. nuclear

d. soluble extracellular

2. Secondary cell walls are stronger than primary cell walls because secondary cell walls contain

a. more pectin.

b. less lignin.

c. more chitin.

d. layers of cellulose fibrils at various orientations to one another.

3. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I genes code for

a. mRNAs.

b. tRNAs.

c. small nuclear RNAs and small cytoplasmic RNAs.

d. ribosomal RNAs.

4. Mitochondrial genes are transcribed by

a. RNA polymerase I.

b. RNA polymerase II.

c. RNA polymerase III.

d. a separate mitochondrial RNA polymerase.

1. The prokaryotic cells most commonly used to study transcription and translation are from

a. E. coli.

b. B. subtilis.

c. S. cerevisiae.

d. D. discoidium.

2. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I genes code for

a. mRNAs.

b. tRNAs.

c. small nuclear RNAs and small cytoplasmic RNAs.

d. ribosomal RNAs.

3. Mitochondrial genes are transcribed by

a. RNA polymerase I.

b. RNA polymerase II.

c. RNA polymerase III.

d. a separate mitochondrial RNA polymerase.

4. The first step in the formation of a transcription complex for mRNA transcription is the binding of _______ to the TATA box.

a. TFIA

b. TFIIA

c. TFIIIA

d. TFIID

5. The large multi-subunit complex that links the general transcription factors to the gene-specific transcription factors is called

a. the transcription complex.

b. Mediator.

c. the operator.

d. TBP.

6. Release of RNA polymerase II to initiate transcription appears to be the direct result of the

a. binding of TAFs to the polymerase.

b. unwinding of the DNA by helicases.

c. phosphorylation of RNA polymerase by a protein kinase.

d. removal of the nucleosome occupying the promoter site.

7. A major difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic RNA polymerases is that eukaryotic polymerases

a. use a set of transcription factors to bind to and initiate transcription.

b. use sigma (s) factors to initiate transcription.

c. start from promoters.

d. start from origins of replication.

8. Enhancers usually are _______ sequences that require _______ to regulate a gene.

a. cis-acting; other cis-acting sequences

b. cis-acting; trans-acting factors

c. trans-acting; trans-acting factors

d. Both a and b

9. Steroid hormone receptors recognize and bind to specific DNA sequences by _______ domains.

a. zinc finger

b. helix-loop-helix

c. helix-turn-helix

d. leucine zipper

10. Helix-turn-helix transcription factor proteins are found

a. only in insects.

b. only in eukaryotes.

c. only in prokaryotes.

d. in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

11. DNA sequences that prevent enhancers from acting on promoters located in adjacent domains are called

a. insulators.

b. isolators.

c. repressors.

d. boundaries.

12. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases are enzymes that

a. synthesize transfer RNAs.

b. attach amino acids to specific transfer RNAs.

c. connect amino acids while they are held in place on ribosomes by transfer RNAs.

d. attach the terminal CCA sequence to transfer RNAs.

13. E. coli contains about _______ different tRNAs that code for _______ different amino acids.

a. 62; 40

b. 62; 20

c. 50; 20

d. 40; 20

14. The capacity for some tRNAs to recognize more than one codon in mRNA is explained by a phenomenon called

a. redundancy.

b. wobble.

c. a reading frameshift.

d. degeneracy.

15. Translation always occurs on which of the following structures?

a. Ribosomes

b. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Nuclear envelope

d. Mitochondria

16. The combined sizes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes are

a. the same.

b. 30S and 50S, respectively.

c. 40S and 60S, respectively.

d. 70S and 80S, respectively.

17. Which of the following statements is true and provides evidence that a certain component of the ribosome catalyzes protein synthesis?

a. Ribosomes are inactive after protease digestion.

b. Ribosomes are inactive after RNase digestion.

c. Structural analysis shows that proteins occupy the catalytic site where peptide bonds are formed.

d. Structural analysis shows that mRNA occupies the catalytic site where peptide bonds are formed.

18. In translation, mRNAs are read in the _______ direction, and polypeptide chains are synthesized from the _______ends.

a. 5ʹ to 3ʹ; carboxyl to the amino

b. 5ʹ to 3ʹ; amino to the carboxyl

c. 3ʹ to 5ʹ; carboxyl to the amino

d. 3ʹ to 5ʹ; amino to the carboxyl

19. During translation, the codons on the mRNA are recognized by complementary base pairing to the anticodon on the

a. ribosome.

b. transfer RNA.

c. small cytoplasmic RNA.

d. aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.

20. Eukaryotic ribosomes recognize and initially bind to what structure on the mRNA?

a. A Shine-Dalgarno sequence

b. The 7-methylguanosine cap

c. A TATA sequence

d. A CCAAT sequence

21. The factor that escorts the amionacyl tRNA to the eukaryotic ribosome and then releases it with GTP hydrolysis following the correct codon–anticodon base pairing is

a. eIF-1.

b. eRF-1.

c. eIF-2.

d. eEF-1a.

22. Signaling by the steroid hormone estrogen is an example of _______ signaling.

a. autocrine

b. endocrine

c. paracrine

d. direct cell-to-cell

23. Signaling by neurotransmitters is an example of _______ signaling.

a. autocrine

b. endocrine

c. paracrine

d. direct cell-to-cell

24. Stimulation of T lymphocytes, leading to their synthesis of a growth factor resulting in T lymphocyte proliferation, is an example of _______ signaling.

a. autocrine

b. endocrine

c. paracrine

d. direct cell-to-cell

25. Steroid hormones usually act via receptors that

a. are coupled to G proteins that activate adenylyl cyclase.

b. activate tyrosine kinases.

c. bind to DNA.

d. activate phospholipase C.

26. Which of the following signal molecules binds to nuclear receptors?

a. Thyroid hormone

b. Vitamin D₃

c. Retinoic acid

d. Estrogen

27. Neurotransmitters act by binding to receptors that are

a. ligand-gated ion channels.

b. located in the cytoplasm.

c. tyrosine-kinase receptors.

d. not coupled to G proteins.

28. Peptide hormones and growth factors act on target cells by binding to cell surface and _______ receptors.

a. endoplasmic reticulum

b. cytosolic

c. nuclear

d. soluble extracellular

29. The G protein that activates adenylyl cyclase is a

a. monomeric G protein in the Ras family that binds GTP.

b. dimeric G protein that separates into a and b subunits.

c. heterotrimeric G protein that separates into a and bg subunits.

d. heterotrimeric G protein that separates into ab andg subunits.

30. The GTP on the G protein that is linked to adenylyl cyclase is split to GDP and P_i

a. in the inactive state.

b. in the process of subunit separation.

c. upon activation by the receptor.

d. by the active a subunit.

31. The major function of cAMP in animal cells is to activate

a. adenylyl cyclase.

b. protein kinase A.

c. protein kinase C.

d. tyrosine kinases.

32. Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?

a. cAMP

b. IP₃

c. Calcium

d. Ecdysone

33. Which of the following correctly describes how protein kinase A can activate genes?

a. Nuclear protein kinase A is activated by cAMP to phosphorylate general transcription factors.

b. Cytosolic protein kinase A is activated by cAMP to release the catalytic subunits, which move into the nucleus and phosphorylate CREB.

c. Cytosolic protein kinase A is activated by cAMP to release the catalytic subunits, which move into the nucleus and phosphorylate general transcription factors.

d. Nuclear protein kinase A is activated by cAMP to phosphorylate CREB.

34. Rhodopsin in the vertebrate retinal photoreceptor cells results in a change in the second messenger _______, leading to the opening of ion channels in the plasma membrane and the production of a nerve impulse.

a. Ca²⁺

b. cAMP

c. cGMP

d. IP₃

35. The first step in growth factor pathway activation is

a. receptor dimerization.

b. receptor phosphorylation.

c. Ras activation.

d. the binding of SH2-containing proteins.

1. You are studying a steroid hormone-binding protein in mice. Youhave isolated two proteins that have similar but not identicalamino acid sequences from a mixed tissue homogenate (prepared frombrain, muscle, liver, ovary, adrenal gland and kidney of a mixedpopulation of adult mice). There are at least three differentmolecular mechanisms that can give rise to similar butnon-identical proteins. List and explain two of these.

2. The differentiation of muscle cellsin the developing embryo is controlled by myogenin, ahelix-loop-helix (HLH) gene regulatory protein that functions as aheterodimer with another HLH protein. The activity of myogenin mustbe carefully controlled so it does not trigger premature expressionof muscle cell differentiation. The myogenin gene isturned on in advance of the time when it is needed, but myogenin isprevented from functioning by its tight binding to Id, an HLHprotein that lacks a DNA-binding domain, and by phosphorylation ofits DNA-binding domain. Explain how dimerization with Id andphosphorylation of the DNA-binding domain might act to keepmyogenin non-functional.

3. Imprinting occurs only in mammals,and why it should exist at all is a mystery. One gene that isimprinted in most mammalian species is Igf2 gene, whoseproduct � insulin-like growth factor-2 � is required for prenatalgrowth. Most mammalian females can mate with multiple males,generating multiple embryos with different fathers in each litter.If one father had an Igf2 allele that caused more rapidprenatal growth, embryos carrying his genes, it would prosper atthe expense of the other embryos. While this would be good for thefather�s genes (in an evolutionary sense), it would drain theresources of the mother, potentially putting her life at risk (notgood for her genes). Thus, it is in the mother�s interest tocounter these paternal effects with maternal changes that limit thegrowth of the embryo. Based on this scenario, decide whether theIgf2 gene is more likely to be imprinted in the male or inthe female.

3. The activity of myogenin must be carefully controlled lest it trigger premature expression of the gene essential for cell differentiation. The myogenin gene is turned ON in before it is actually needed (and myogenin is expressed), but myogenin is prevented from functioning by phosphorylation of its DNA-binding domain AND by its tight binding to Id, a helix-loop-helix protein that lacks the DNA binding domain.

A. What types of interactions would hold the heterodimer together and you expect them to be the same as those that are necessary for Id binding? Where would you find these bonds/interactions (use the figure).

B. Explain how phosphorylation of the DNA binding domain and dimerization with Id might act to keep myogenin nonfunctional.

Extra credit. Why might this method of protein regulation be preferred over transcriptional control in this case?

4. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases attach specific amino acids to their appropriate tRNAs. The synthetase that attaches valine to tRNAval must be able to discriminate valine from threonine. Valyl-tRNA synthetase achieves this discrimination in two steps. In the first, it uses a binding pocket whose contours allow only valine and threonine to bind, but the binding of valine is preferred. This site is responsible for coupling the amino acid to the tRNA. In the second step, the enzyme checks the newly made aminoacyl-tRNA using a second binding site that is very specific for threonine and hydrolyses it from the tRNA. How do you suppose it is that the second binding site can be very specific for threonine, whereas the first binding site has only a moderate specificity for valine?

1. tRNA aminoacylation

a. What is aminoacylation? Where on the tRNA does it occur?

b. Why is ATP required for aminoacylation? Why is the hydrolysis of PPi generated during aminoacylation important?

c. What is the significance of the high-transfer potential of the ester bond created during tRNA aminoacylation?

d. Why is the specificity of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases important? How do these enzymes ensure their specificity?

e. Are you familiar enough with amino acid side chains to answer questions about aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase specificity? (e.g. how might similar amino acids like valine, serine and threonine be distinguished?)

f. Do you understand why there are differences in amino acid recognition between activation and editing sites? And how those differences dictate the specificity of the two different activities?

Can someone help me with these enzyme lab problems?

1. Which substrate(s) does tyrosinase act upon best?

2. Does tyrosinase exhibit a high level of specificity?

3. Does tyrosinase appear to exhibit absolute specificity (i.e. catalyze only one reaction) or group specificity (i.e. catalyze the reaction of a structurally related group of substances)?

4. What is the difference in inhibitory activity between resorcinol, benzoic acid, and phenylthiourea?

5.Phenylthiourea has a strong affinity for copper.

-a Draw the structure of phenylthiourea and indicate which portion of the molecule binds to copper?

-b Would you conclude that copper is located at the active site of tyrosinase?

5)Explain why there is decreased enzyme activity at 0 degrees celsius and also 70 degress celsius

a- Do enzymes differ from chemical catalysts with regard to temperature?

What are enzymes and why are they important to biology, theenvironment, medicine and our scientific understanding of life ingeneral? How does enzyme activity relate to tyrosinase, DOPA andmelanin?

Which of the following best characterizes an angular unconformity?

A) Tilted strata lie below the unconformity; bedding in younger strata above is parallel to the unconformity.
B) Horizontal lava flows lie below the unconformity and horizontal, sedimentary strata lie above.
C) The discordant boundary between older strata and an intrusive body of granite.
D) Tilted strata lie below the unconformity with loose, unconsolidated soil above.

Which is.largest bone in our body 👅👅

What bone in the body is the smallest?

Suppose your body requires at least 8 MJ of energy daily just to maintain itself. Roughly, what is your body's minimum average power consumption? (expressed in watts?)

What is the level of organization in the human body from the least to the most complex?