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1. This family of bacteria is often associated with urinary tract infections?

A)

Listeria

B)

Salmonella

C)

Proteus

D) none of the above

2.Hepatitis D is a defective form of the virus that needs Hepatitis B to exist.

A) True
B) False

3. These are the only viruses large enough to be seen under the light microscope:

A)

Papillomavirus

B)

Poxvirus

C)

Herpes virus

D) Adenovirus

4. Each of these practices has greatly reduced the spread of infectious diseases in the developed world except

A)

vaccination.

B)

antibiotics.

C)

reduced population growth.

D)

water purification.

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Jean Keeling
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4 Dec 2018
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Related questions

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(c) Ganglia are part of brain

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(c) Staphylococcus

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(c) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(c) Streptococcus meningitis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(c) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(c) Listeria monocytogenes

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(c) Bacteria

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(c) It is responsible for many cases of fetal damage and death.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(c) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(c) Mumps virus

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(c) Mumps virus

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(c) They are all transmitted into the body through the bite of an infected mosquito.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(c) They produce a powerful exotoxin that mediates the disease.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(c) Clostridium tetani

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(c) Lung, following exposure to aerosols

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(c) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(c) They produce the most potent toxin known.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

44.Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob. Immediately after touching the knob, Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n) a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 44.A man infected with a viral respiratory infection sneezes and releases tiny droplets containing viral particles. Two minutes later, a woman breathes in some of these tiny droplets and becomes infected by the same viral infection. The movement of this virus from one individual to another is best described as the a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 45. Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States, the disease is considered nonendemic. What differentiates measles from endemic diseases, such as chickenpox? a. Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak. b. Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area. c. Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks. d. Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans. 46. Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working? a. The disease becomes endemic. b. The disease prevalence increases. c. The disease incidence decreases. d. Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year. 47. Which of the following statements describes one of the three steps of surveillance used for infectious diseases? a. Patients with infectious diseases are required to be seen by a physician at the CDC. b. Physicians are required to submit all patient records electronically to the CDC for review. c. Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious disease is suspected. d. Incidence data is collected in all cases of bacterial infections within the United States. 48. Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common? a. urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia b. pneumonia, urinary tract, surgical wounds c. septicemia, surgical wounds, diarrhea d. diarrhea, urinary tract, pneumonia 49. Mary, an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter, is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Three days after her admission, Mary’s husband receives a call from the hospital. He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection. Which of the following statements is true? a. The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia. b. Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection. c. Of all hospital patients, 25–30% develop nosocomial infections. d. Mary’s nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation. 50. A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose. He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if a. infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical. b. the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical. c. all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were cared for by this nurse. d. all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of heart problems. 51. Which of the following is NOT an example of aseptic technique? a. use of antiseptic on skin prior to insertion of an IV line b. use of latex gloves during the insertion of an indwelling catheter c. disinfection of doorknobs and other inert surfaces d. use of trash can liners in all patient rooms 52. An individual case of diphtheria, a notifiable infectious disease, in a patient in Florida is confirmed by laboratory testing. This patient’s physician would be required to a. send a letter to the WHO in Geneva, Switzerland. b. contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia. c. treat the patient regardless of health insurance status. d. quarantine the patient for eight weeks. 53. Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS. Epidemiologists will most likely a. quarantine the entire province immediately. b. contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States. c. wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported. d. try to identify the index case. 54. How does vaccinating wild rodents or poultry influence human health? a. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry has no effect on human health. b. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to humans. c. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces the migration of microbes into temperate regions. d. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry increases the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria. 55. Which of the following scenarios would help meet the goal of the One Health Initiative? a. vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted to humans b. taking steps to reduce carbon dioxide emissions to reduce the effects of climate change c. providing sanitation after flooding events to prevent gastrointestinal infections in humans d. increasing compliance during antibiotic treatment of tuberculosis patients to prevent emergence of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis 56. If humans continue to develop rapid transportation systems into more parts of the world, we should expect to see a. pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems. b. an increase in detection of blood-borne pathogens. c. a decrease in human encroachment into tropical rain forests. d. an increase in the spread of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. 57. How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases? a. AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries. b. AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world. c. AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were declining in underdeveloped countries. d. AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all countries. 58. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change? a. Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions. b. Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions. c. Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions. d. Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal. 59. What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon? a. a high infectious dose c. person-to-person transmission b. transmission via an insect vector d. quick pathogen detection systems

21)Diagnosis of infectious diseases may include the followinglevels: a) ckinical b) Antibody response c) Isolation andidentification of the causative agent d) All of the above e) Noneof the above

22)The lower respiratory tract is ususally kept free ofmicroorganisms by: a) The combined action of mucus secretion andciliary action b) Antibiotics c) Frequent use of nose drops d) Allof the above e) None of the above

23)Complications following recovery from acute infections byB-streptococci may include: a)Erysipelas b) rheumatic fever c)Acute glomerulonephritis d) Only B and C above e)All of theabove

24)he virulwnce of the pneumococcus appears to be solelydependent on: a) Leukocidins b) Hyaluronidase c) Capsule d)Hemolysins e) None of the above

25)The organism responsible for most cases of acute bacterialmeningitis in the aduly is: a) Haemophilus influenzae b)diplococcus pneumoniaenc) Neisseria catarrhalis d) Neisseriameningitidis e) None of the above

26)The source of most meningococcal infections is: a) Healthycarrier b) Direct contact with an acute infection c) Contaminatedwater d) Insect vectors e) None of the above

27)Local inflammation and fever in whooping cough may be due tothe release of: a) Exotoxins b) Endotoxins c) Extracellular enzymesd) Only A and B above e) None of the above

28)The severity of diphtheria is due to: a) Action of exotoxinb) Action of endotoxins c) Infection following tracheotomy d) Allof the above e) none of the above

29)The most important preventive measure for diphtheria is: a)Avoid infected persons b) Immunizaton with diphtheria toxoid c)Immunization with diphtheria antitoxin d) Antibiotic prophylaxis e)None of the above

30)A point to note in relation to tuberculosis is: a) It isalways acute b) It is always chronic c) The outcome of the strugglebetween the tubercle bacillus and the hist may not be decided formany years d) The disease is always confined to the lungs e) Noneof the above

31)A posotive tuberculin test indicated: a) active tuberculosisb) The person has been infected with tubercle bacilli c)hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein d) None of the above e) Only Band C above

32)An individual can have several common cold infections over ashort period because: a) Over 100 serologic types of rhinoviruseshave been isolated b) Each type of rhinovirus is immunologicallydistinct c) No immunity results from any virus infection d) All ofthe above e) Only A and B above

33)An effective vaccine against the common cold does not appearfeasible because: a) There are over 100 different rhinoviruses b)There is no immunity to rhinoviruses c) rhinoviruses cannot becultivated insufficient quantity d) Rhinoviruses cannot beattenuated for safe use e) none of the above

34)The most feared complication of mumps is: a) Sterility in themale b) Infertility in the female c) Pneumonia d) Endocarditis e)None of the above

35)Smallpox can be controlled by: a) Antibiotics b) Antiserum c)Vaccintion d) Isolation of infected persons e) none of theabove

36)Which of the following may be spread by respiratorysecretions? a) Measles b) INFLUENZA C) smallpox d) All of the abovee) only A and C above

37)which of the following genera are lactose-fermenters? a)Excherichia b) Enterobacter c) Salmonella and shingella d) All ofthe above e) Only A and B above

38)The main antibiotic effective against Salmonella typhosa is:a) Penicillin b) streptomycin c) Chloramphenicol d) Sulfanilaminee) None of the above

39)Poliomyelitis is spread primarily by: a) Respiratorysecretions b) Droplet nuclei c) Feca-oral route d) Only A and Babove

40)The most common method for the transmission of serumhepatitis is: a) direct injection b) Respiratory secretions c)Fomities d) Contaminated water e) None of the above

41)The infective source for amebic dysentery is: a) Chickens b)Chronically infected persons c) carriers d) All of the above e)Only B and C above

42)Urinary tract infections are most commonly caused by: a)Gram-negative bacilli b) gram-positive cocci c) gram-positivebacilli d) Gram-negative cocci e) None of the above

43)The causative agent of syphillis: a) Neisseria gonorrheae b)Treponema pallidum c) Chlamydia d) Haemophilus ducreyi e) None ofthe abobe

44)The gonococcus is morphologically similar to: a) Treponemzpallidum b) Meningococcus c) Staphylococcus d) Streptococcus e)None of the above

45)Which of the following disease agents may be tranmittedthrough sexual intercourse? a) Haemophilus ducreyi b) Chlamydia c)Trichomonas vaginalis d) All of the above e) Only A and B above

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