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12 Dec 2018

1. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? (2.5 pts)
a) rifampins
b) penicillin
c) cephalosporins
d) polyenes
e) aminoglycosides
In the space below, provide an explanation for your answer.
2. Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? (2.5 pts)
a) bacitracin
b) penicillin
c) cephalosporin
d) streptomycin
e) monobactam
In the space below, provide an explanation for your answer.
3. Which of the following are the easiest to treat with antimicrobial agents? (2.5 pts)
a) Protozoa
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Prokaryotes
In the space below, provide an explanation for your answer.
4. Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be
effective against (2.5 pts)
a) gram-negative bacteria.
b) gram-positive bacteria.
c) helminths.
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
e) viruses.
In the space below, provide an explanation for your answer.

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Keith Leannon
Keith LeannonLv2
14 Dec 2018
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Related questions

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(c) Ganglia are part of brain

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(c) Staphylococcus

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(c) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(c) Streptococcus meningitis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(c) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(c) Listeria monocytogenes

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(c) Bacteria

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(c) It is responsible for many cases of fetal damage and death.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(c) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(c) Mumps virus

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(c) Mumps virus

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(c) They are all transmitted into the body through the bite of an infected mosquito.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(c) They produce a powerful exotoxin that mediates the disease.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(c) Clostridium tetani

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(c) Lung, following exposure to aerosols

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(c) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(c) They produce the most potent toxin known.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

Q1. Which of the following is false concerning the Calvin Benson Cycle.

A. Utilizes both NADPH and ATP

B. Requires ribulose bisphophate carboxylase

C. Is responsible for the fixation of carbon dioxide.

D. Oxidize carbons

E. All of the above are true

Q2. Concerning the avian-adapted, highly pathogenic strain of H5N1 (called HPAI A(H5N1), for "highly pathogenic avian influenza virus of type A of subtype H5NI"), which of the following is false:

A. Cause "avian influenza" or simply "bird flu"

B. Has resulted in death of many millions of chickens and birds

C. Has resulted in recent deaths of many hundred thousands of exposed humans.

D. Endemic in many bird populations.

E. All of the above are true

Q3. Which of the following is mismatched concerning microscopy.

A. SEM: 3D representatio of surface features of cells and other objects, individual components in microbial communities, microbial environmental interactions.

B. Confocal: uses laser light sources to scan differentilly lableded specimens producing 3D images assembled by a computer.

C. Darkfield: can visualize living spirochetes in wetmounts, motility of celss in wet mounts.

D. Differential Interference Phase Contrast: Similar to phase contrast but adds prisms providing additional detail and quasi-3D effect.

E. Limit of resolution human eye (conventional light microscopy): 0.2 mm (2nm)

Q4. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order in resistance to heat and chemicals?

A. Protozoan cysts - prions - endospores - fungi - mycobacteria - lipid viruses - E.Coli

B. Endospores - prions - fungi - mycobacteria - protozoan cysts - E.Coli - lipid viruses

C. Endospores - prions - protozoan cysts - fungi - mycobacteria - lipid viruses - E. Coli

D. Prions - endospores - mycobacteria - protozoan cysts - fungi - E.Coli - lipid viruses

E. Prions - endospores - mycobacteria - fungi - protozoan cysts - lipid viruses - E.Coli

Q5. What is false concerning capnophiles?

A. mammalian cells in culture

B. Neisseria

C. Have a requirement for increased carbon dioxide

D. Hemophilus

E. All of the above are true

Q6. Which of the following is false concerning Biosafety Levels?

A. Requirments for facilities increase from BSL- 1 to BSL- 4

B. PPE increses from BSL- 1 to BSL- 4

C. BSL- 4 agents have no vaccines and treatments and include Ebola and Marburg viruses

D. BSL- 3 agents include Vibrio cholerae, Corynebacterium diphtheriase & Borrelia burdorferi

E. all of the above are true.

Q7. Which of the following would be the most likely and available choice for sterilizing heat labile liquids in different research and teaching labs at a school, while still retaining the materials in a useable state?

A. Membrane filtration

B. Gamma radiation

C. Autoclaving

D. Hot air oven

E. HEPA filter

Q8. In the aerobic metabolism of proteins by chemoheterotrophs (e.g., E.Coli and you)

A. Proteins are broken down into smaller prptides and eventually into amino acids by proteses (peptidases)

B. Certain amino acids may be converted to pyruvate

C. Certain amino acids may be converted to intermediates (e.g. oxaloacetate) of the Krebs cycle.

D. Certain amino acids may be converted to acetyl-CoA

E. All of the above are true.

Q9. Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing air in a hospital surgical suite during an operation?

A. Membrane Filtration

B. Ethylene oxide gas

C. Autoclaving

D. HEPA filtration

E. Gamma irradiation

Q10. The "roadblock" to continued oxidation of glucose in fermentations is bypassed through production of fermentation products for the purpose of

A. oxidation of NAD+ back to NADH

B. reduction of NAD+ back to NADH

C. reduction of NADH back to NAD+

D. oxidation of NADH back to NAD+

E. generating additional ATPs beyond that produced by glycolysis.

Q11. Which of the following is used in hand sanitizing soaps purchased from your local HEB?

A. Formaldehyde

B. Glutaraldehyde

C. Triclosan

D. Mercury

E. 5% hypochlorite

Q12. Enteric plating media (e.g., MacMonkey and EMB agars) have which sugar and a pH indicator to distinguish coliforms from non coliforms?

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Lactose

D. Maltose

E. Fructose

Q13. Normal antimicrobial therapy for active tuberculosis involves:

A. one drug for 10 days

B. two or more drugs for 10 days

C. one drug for at least 6 months

D. three or four drugs for at least 6 months

E. six or more drugs for at least 3 years.

Can you guys help me answer these questions please!!!

Ciproflaxin is a broad spectrum antibiotic that kills most normal microbial inhabitants in the human gut. Clostridium difficile is found in small numbers in the normal flora of some healthy adults however this normal inhabitant of the gut is not affected by ciproflaxin. Clostridium difficile is innately resistant to ciproflaxin. After therapy with ciproflaxin patients who normally carry Clostridium difficile often exhibit Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. The change in ability of Clostridium difficile to cause disease would best be explained by the statement that [choose the statement below that you would argue is the best explanation]

a.

Ciproflaxin interacted with Clostridium difficile in a manner to make the organism more pathogenic.
b.

I do not know the answer to this question.
c.

Ciproflaxin has killed the microbes that normally compete with Clostridium difficile in the gut allowing the microbe to grow uncontrolled.
d.

Ciproflaxin acted as a mutagen. Ciproflaxin induced a mutation in Clostridium difficile to make the organism more pathogenic.

Please provide support/justification for your answer to the ciproflaxin treatment of Clostridium question.

Bacillus subtilis is growing in a nutrient rich environment. If glucose is depleted, what would be the first response of Bacillus subtilis to the change in the environment?

a.

utilization of another carbon source.
b.

formation of an endospore.
c.

alteration of a DNA sequence.
d.

I don’t know the answer to this question.
e.

acceptance of DNA via gene transfer.

Please provide support/justification for your answer to the Bacillus depleting glucose question.

Which is _*NOT*_ true about the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations? It can be mediated by

a.

modification of a bacterium’s genome through uptake of new genetic information.
b.

I do not know the answer to this question.
c.

alterations of a bacterium’s genetic material through mutation.
d.

changes in gene expression that occur in the presence of antibiotics.
e.

selective growth of bacteria capable of degrading antibiotics.

Please provide support/justification for your answer to the bacterial antibiotic resistance evolution question.

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