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BIO230H1 Chapter Notes -Alternative Splicing, Polyadenylation, Dna Replication

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pearserval449
14 Oct 2013
School
UTSG
Department
Biology
Course
BIO230H1
Professor
Darrel Desveaux

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BIO230H1 Full Course Notes
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Document Summary

October 6, 2013 domains a set of nucleotide sequences that the rna polymerase recognizes. Rna polymerase starts at n-domain and ends at c-terminal for transcription process. C-terminal at 5" end and n-terminal at 3"end when rna polymerase attaches to ctd (c-terminal domain) on dna, it initiates transcription phosphorylation proteins - Adp --> atp uses phosphorylation for transcription and translation phosphorylation - when you add a phosphate group to rna so it can bind to each other. Poly-a tail also protects against degradation in cytoplasm. poly-a tail template - could be on daughter strand in dna replication or on rna strand. copy of the poly-a tail on original strand. Rna polymerase ii puts on the poly-a tail. strong vs. weak splicing mechanism of alternative splicing regulation of spliceosomes still unknown. Affect rna. weak splicing - don"t attach to correct splice site at 3" end of.

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Related Questions

13

Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis is oxygen the INDIRECT product?

A

Glycolysis

B

Oxidative phosphorylation

C

Both light and dark

D

Light independent phase (LIP)

E

Light dependent phase (LDP)

14

You have a stomach flu characterized by vomiting. Which of the following systems is most responsible for the food in your stomach going the wrong way, e.g. vomiting? (Disregard this question and answer choice B)

A

Cardiac Muscle in the large intestine as discussed in class.

B

Smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract

C

Smooth muscle in the blood vessels

D

Skeletal muscle in the intestine

15

Proteins are made from which of the following smaller sub units?

A

Nucleotides

B

Amino acids that cannot enter the blood stream and go to cells

C

Monosaccharides

D

Fatty acids

E

Amino acids which can form new protein

16

Carbohydrates are digested in the gastrointestinal system into which of the following substances that is the smallest structure?

A

Polysaccharides that are produced by glucagon

B

Monosaccharides that are produced by insulin

C

Monosaccharides

D

Polysaccharide

17

Which of the following biomolecules has the longest digestion time? In other words, how long does it take for the biomolecule to be catabolized?

A

DNA

B

Lipid

C

Carbohydrate

D

Protein

18

You are sunburned after a long day at the beach. Which one is not an example of UV damage to your skin cells?

A

A mutation can occur in your ovaries

B

A mutation can occur in skin cell DNA that can lead to errors in transcription.

C

Errors can occur during DNA replication.

D

UV light can cause mutations in DNA of skins cells.

E

Thymine bases in your skin DNA bond with each other instead of across the double helix

19

This region, the ______________ (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region, the ______________ (b) tells RNA where to start transcription.

A

(a) promoter, (b) open reading frame

B

(a) start codon, (b) methionine

C

(a) promoter, (b) start site

D

(a) start site, (b) promoter

20

The genetic code is used to translate ______________ into ______________.

A

lipids, nucleotides

B

nucleotides,carbohydrates

C

nucleotides, lipids

D

nucleotides, amino acids

E

nucleosides, amino acids

21

Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene?

A

RNA polymerase makes a copy of DNA into mRNA.

B

mRNA is translated in the nucleus and ribosomal RNA moves into the cytoplasm.

C

Gene expression is completed after transcription.

D

mRNA moves into the cytoplasm and with tRNA they interact to form protein

E

Translation machinery moves into the nucleus and mRNA is translated into protein.

22

How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs?

A

This remains an unanswered question in science that scientists are still trying to figure out.

B

The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed.

C

The mutated DNA is expressed in one cell and the altered protein travels to multiple organs to cause disease.

D

The mutated DNA is expressed and the mRNA takes the mutated information to other cells where the altered protein is made to cause disease in that organ.

23

The advantage of sickle cell anemia is which of the following?

A

It decreases the amount of oxygen in the blood cells so that mosquitoes carrying malaria will live

B

It decreases the amount of oxygen in the blood cells so that mosquitoe's blood form will die.

C

It allows the blood vessels to decrease the amount of blood going to the toes and feet.

D

There is none.

24

Which of the following is a purpose of cell division?

A

Cell reproduction

B

Growth

C

Repair

D

All of these

QUESTION 3

What is the purpose of chromatin-remodeling enzymes in human cells?

The enzymes control the rate of translation of an mRNA transcript

The enzymes add phosphate or methyl groups to histone tails

The enzymes slide nucleosomes farther apart or closer to each other

The enzymes send damaged proteins to the proteasome for degradation

The enzymes cause DNA looping to occur

QUESTION 10

If you can drink milk as an adult, it means that you have inherited a mutation in the an enhancer for your lactase gene (the gene that encodes the enzyme you need to break down lactose). Predict the effect of this mutation:

The mutation changes the number of domains in the enzyme, which makes it work more efficiently

The mutation changes the amino acid sequence of the lactase protein

The mutation increases the number of copies of the lactase gene that will be found in your genome

The mutation changes whether the lactase sequence is found in an intron or exon

The mutation affects the expression of the lactase gene

QUESTION 12

What determines where in the genome a transcription regulator will bind?

Transcription regulators bind to the 5' UTR region of a gene

Regulators bind via complementary base-pairing to certain DNA molecules

Covalent bonds form between the transcription regulator and the atoms of the DNA backbone

Every eukaryotic gene has a different transcription regulator that will bind to the 5' end of the gene

Transcription regulators bind to specific DNA sequences via multiple weak non-covalent interactions

QUESTION 15

What is the histone code used for?

Phosphorylation and acetylation of DNA affect its ability to be compacted

Changes to the sequence of DNA change whether DNA will wrap around histone proteins

Covalent modifications of histones affect the ability of the transcription initiation complex to form

Histones provide the codon sequences needed for translation to occur

The histone code affects which amino acids will get added to a polypeptide

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation