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BIOL-2011EL Chapter Notes - Chapter 11: Tandemly Arrayed Genes, In Situ Hybridization, Histone H2A

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fuchsiaeel213
25 Jun 2018
School
Laurentian
Department
Biology / Biologie
Course
BIOL-2011EL
Professor
Kabwe Nkongolo

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1
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
Essentials of Genetics, 8e (Klug)
Chapter 11 Chromosome Structure and DNA Sequence Organization
1) Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of ________.
A) protein- or lipid-coding sequences
B) DNA only
C) DNA or RNA
D) RNA only
E) DNA, RNA, or protein
Answer: C
Section: 11.1
2) In E. coli, the genetic material is composed of ________.
A) circular, double-stranded DNA
B) linear, double-stranded DNA
C) RNA and protein
D) circular, double-stranded RNA
E) polypeptide chains
Answer: A
Section: 11.1
3) Eukaryotic chromosomes contain two general domains that relate to the degree of
condensation. These two regions are ________.
A) called heterochromatin and euchromatin
B) uniform in the genetic information they contain
C) separated by large stretches of repetitive DNA
D) each void of typical protein-coding sequences of DNA
E) void of introns
Answer: A
Section: 11.4
4) Chromatin of eukaryotes is organized into repeating interactions with protein octomers called
nucleosomes. Nucleosomes are composed of which class of molecules?
A) histones
B) glycoproteins
C) lipids
D) H1 histones
E) nonhistone chromosomal proteins
Answer: A
Section: 11.4
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2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than are apparently "needed" and
that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is
more typical in ________.
A) viruses than in bacteria
B) RNA viruses than in DNA viruses
C) eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
D) the alphoid rather than the diphloid family
E) prokaryotes than in eukaryotes
Answer: C
Section: 11.4, 11.5
6) In human chromosomes, satellite DNA sequences of about 170 base pairs in length are present
in tandem arrays of up to 1 million base pairs. Found mainly in centromere regions, these DNA
sequences are called ________.
A) telomeres
B) primers
C) alphoid families
D) euchromatic regions
E) telomere-associated sequences
Answer: C
Section: 11.5
7) In addition to highly repetitive and unique DNA sequences, a third category of DNA
sequences exists. What is it called, and which types of elements are involved in it?
A) composite DNA; telomeres and heterochromatin
B) dominant DNA; euchromatin and heterochromatin
C) multiple gene family DNA; hemoglobin and 5.0S RNA
D) moderately repetitive DNA; SINEs, LINEs, and VNTRs
E) permissive DNA; centromeres and heterochromatin
Answer: D
Section: 11.5
8) A particular variant of the lambda bacteriophage has a DNA double-stranded genome of
51,365 base pairs. How long would this DNA be?
Answer: One base pair is 0.34 nm; therefore, 51,365 bp X 0.34 nm/bp = 17,464 nm or 17.46 ÎĽm.
Section: 11.1
9) List several configurations that characterize different viral chromosomes.
Answer: DNA (single- and double-stranded), RNA (single- and double-stranded), linear,
circular
Section: 11.1
10) Describe the chromosomal conformations of φX174 and polyoma viruses.
Answer: single-stranded DNA, circular; double-stranded DNA, circular, respectively
Section: 11.1
11) How does a polytene chromosome differ from a typical eukaryotic chromosome?
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Document Summary

Chapter 11 chromosome structure and dna sequence organization: viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of ________, protein- or lipid-coding sequences, dna only, dna or rna, rna only, dna, rna, or protein. Section: 11. 1: in e. coli, the genetic material is composed of ________, circular, double-stranded dna, linear, double-stranded dna, rna and protein, circular, double-stranded rna, polypeptide chains. Section: 11. 1: eukaryotic chromosomes contain two general domains that relate to the degree of condensation. These two regions are ________: called heterochromatin and euchromatin, uniform in the genetic information they contain, separated by large stretches of repetitive dna, each void of typical protein-coding sequences of dna, void of introns. Section: 11. 4: chromatin of eukaryotes is organized into repeating interactions with protein octomers called nucleosomes. Nucleosomes are composed of which class of molecules: histones, glycoproteins, lipids, h1 histones, nonhistone chromosomal proteins.

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Related Questions

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

1. What recent research has indicated that studying Down Syndrome may hold a key to cancer growth and slowing tumor growth? In your answer be sure to mention the DSCR1 gene, angiogenesis suppression, and why individuals with Down’s Syndrome rarely have solid tumor growth. 2. Select your favorite chromosome and list the following: Three disorders that are found on this chromosome, Indicate the type of disorder (dominant, recessive) and the type of numerical or structural aberration. 3. Assume that crossing over does not occur in the region of each chromosome that is associated with the centromere. You have 46 centromeric regions in each cell, 23 that are copies of the DNA in your mother’s egg and 23 that are copies of the DNA father’s sperm. a. For any given gamete, what is the probability that all the centromeric regions will be copies of the same ones that you received from your mother? b. It has been estimated that the average person is heterozygous for at least 2,000 protein forming genes. How many different kinds of gametes is it theoretically possible for each person to produce? c. Considering the maternal and paternal origin of the centromeric regions alone, how many different kinds of gametes can you produce? 4. Find a current article on Telomerase (within the last year). Summarize the article and answer the following: What is telomerase? Why is it viewed as the fountain of youth? Attach the abstract or the first page. 5. Promiscuous Sun Flower has five lovers, but she has decided that the only true father of her child can have her hand in marriage. Sun’s Blood type is A- her five suitors blood types are as follows: a. Maury AB+ b. Elmer O+ c. Willie A- d. Jiggs B- e. Cousin it B+ 6. What is the epigenome. Explain why the study of the epigenome may not follow normal Mendelian genetics 7. Explain what is meant by the statement “Women are just as hemizygous as men”. 8. After having 10 children you remarry…… What is the probability of you now having a boy and then a girl, and then a girl, and then a boy, and then a boy or a girl, and then a girl? You now have 16 children…… 9. The genetic code has four codons for the amino acid Valine (GUG, GUC, GUU, GUA). Organisms have evolved to use some codes more than other codes. Which of the valine codes would you expect to be preferentially used in the genome of an algae growing in a hot spring at Yellowstone Park? EXPLAIN your answer 10. You discovered a new virus that needs to be studied. You begin by digesting the virus with protease (an enzyme that completely digests all proteins) until only amino acids remain. You then determine that the base composition of the viral nucleic acid is 38% Cytosine, 35% Glycine, 15% Thymine, and 12 % Adenine. To which class could this virus belong? EXPLAIN YOUR ANSWER a. Single-stranded RNA Virus b. Double-stranded RNA Virus c. Single-stranded DNA Virus d. Double=stranded DNA Virus e. None of the above because there is not enough information given to make a guess. 11. Adenine is found in numerous biological molecules (for example, DNA, RNA, NADH, ATP). You are now asked to explain the evolution of adenine and at least 5 of these biological (Adenine containing) molecules and how they may have evolved (the order).