heysneha100

Cheryl wishes to invest her inheritance of $200,000 so that her return on investment is maximized, but she also wishes to keep her risk level relatively low. She has decided to invest her money in any of three possible ways: CDs, which pay a guaranteed 6 percent; stocks, which have an expected return of 13 percent; and a money market mutual fund, which is expected to return 8 percent. She has decided that any or all of the $200,000 may be invested, but any part (or all) of it may be put in any of the 3 alternatives. Thus, she may have some money invested in all three alternatives. In formulating this as a linear programming problem, define the variables as follows: C = dollars invested in CDs, S = dollars invested in stocks, M = dollars invested in money market mutual fund. Suppose that Cheryl also decided that the amount invested in CDs MUST exceed one-fourth of the total amount invested. Which is the best way to write this constraint?

a. 3 C + S - M ≤ 0

b. C - 3 S - 3 M ≥ 0

c. 3 C - S - M ≥ 0

d. - 3 C - S + M ≤ 0

e. - 3 C + S - 3 M ≤ 0

Engineering Economics Question

A piece of imaging equipment was purchased two years ago for $50,000 with an expected useful life
of 5 years and a $5000 salvage value.

Determine whether the company should keep or replace the defender at a MARR of 10% per year.

Clive suppliers bought a forklift four years ago for $ 26,000. The market value of this type of forklift is $12,000. If upgraded for $8,000, the forklift is expected to be in use for 7 more years, after which it can be sold for $3,000. Clive suppliers have the alternative of purchasing a new forklift at the cost of $30,000. This new equipment has an expected life of 10 years and a salvage value of $6,000. Using a MARR of 12% per year, calculate the AW and make a decision on whether the company should upgrade or replace.

a)AW of defender = ($4,680), AW of challenger = ($5,651). Upgrade

b)AW of defender = ($4,085), AW of challenger = ($4,680). Replace

c)AW of defender = ($5,651), AW of challenger = ($4,968). Replace

d)AW of defender = ($4,085), AW of challenger = ($4,968). Upgrade

Machine ‘A’ was purchased two years ago for $50,000; it was expected to have a useful life of 5 years with a $5000 salvage value. Since its performance was less than expected, it was upgraded for $20,000 one year ago. Increased demand now requires that machine “A” be upgraded again for $15,000 so that it can be used for 3 more years. Its annual operating cost will be $27,000 and it will have a $12,000 salvage after 3 years. Alternatively, it can be replaced with a new machine “B” costing $65,000, with operating costs of $14,000 per year and a salvage value of $23,000 after 3 years. Calculate the difference in the annual worth between the two machines (AW of “A” – AW of “B”), at an interest rate of 10% per year.

A machine purchased 3 years ago for $140,000 is now too slow to satisfy the demand of the customers. It can be upgraded now for $84,000 or sold to a smaller company internationally for $46,000. The upgraded machine will have an annual operating cost of $84,000 per year and a $20,000 salvage value in 3 years. If upgraded, the presently owned machine will be retained for only 3 more years, then replaced with a machine to be used in the manufacture of several other product lines. The replacement machine, which will serve the company now and for a maximum of 8 years, costs $228,000. Its salvage value will be $52,000 for years 1 through 5; $20,000 after 6 years; and $10,000 thereafter. It will have an estimated operating cost of $45,000 per year. Perform an economic analysis at 8% per year using a specified 3-year planning horizon. a) Determine if the current machine should be replaced now or 3 years from now. b) Once decided, determine the equivalent AW for the next three years. a) The current machine should be replaced . b) The equivalent AW for the next three years is $

Your true color

From these intelligences pick 3 and explain your 3 dominant intelligences, apply each intelligence to your life using examples, and apply the three top career choices that coincide with your Intelligence.

* if you can’t see the picture uploaded here’s the link to it

1.  As the country director of a multi national company in Ghana, you have decided to conduct a survey among tertiary students in the Greater Accra Region about their perception of a new non-alcoholic beverage you have introduced into the Ghanaian market. Identify, justify your choices and explain any two non-profitability sampling techniques that can be employed

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Introduction: The Glasgow Norms Scott et al. (2019) are a set of ratings for 5500 English words on nine different psycholinguistic dimensions. In this task, you’ll be looking at the correlation between age of acquisition and valence. Age of acquisition (AOA) is a measure estimating the age at which a particular word is learned. Valence (VAL) is a measure indicating the pleasantness of the concept named by a word (on a scale of 1 to 9, with 9 being most pleasant).1 

I’ve randomly sampled 200 words from the full dataset, and extracted the words (Words), the mean age of acquisition for each word (AOA.M), and the mean valence for each word (VAL.M). ***You can find this data below at the end***

RStudio
Part A: Write an R script that does the following things. To begin, load the data (it has a header and uses tab to separate the columns). sa4 is the variable you should store the data in.

1. Compute Pearson’s 𝑟 and Kendall’s 𝜏 for the correlation between age of acquisition and valence. Store these in sa4.r and sa4.tau, respectively.

2. Using lm(), construct a linear model for the relationship between age of acquisition and valence. Use valence as the dependent variable. Store your model in sa4.model.

3. Using the line formula 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥+𝑏, calculate the expected valence for a word acquired at the age of 4 years old. Store this in four_years.expected.

4. Now calculate the actual valence for a word acquired at 4 years old, based on the data in the dataset. Since there’s no word acquired at exactly 4 years, get the words acquired between 3.9 years (inclusive) and 4.1 years (inclusive), and calculate the mean age of acquisition. Store this in four_years.actual.

5. Compute a statistical test to test the significance of Pearson’s 𝑟. Store the result of the test in sa4.r.test.

6. Compute a statistical test to test the significance of Kendall’s 𝜏. Store the result of the test in sa4.tau.test.

7. Calculate 𝑟 2 and store the result in sa4.rsquared.

Part B: Do the following using R.

1. Create a plot showing the relationship between age of acquisition and valence (recall that we’re treating valence as the dependent variable). Your plot should include a line of best fit.

2. Based on the plot, how would you characterize the relationship between age of acquisition and valence? Use the terminology about this correlation.

3. Report the results of your statistical test for Pearson’s 𝑟.

4. Report the results of your statistical test for Kendall’s 𝜏.

Data Set:

Words AOA.M VAL.M
sit 1.743 5.343
maid 3.971 4.714
divine 4.625 7.469
healthy 3.114 8.088
football 2.606 4.833
tomahawk 5.833 3.95
pollute 4.844 1.968
girly 3.029 5.8
link 3.546 5.485
text (written work) 3.97 5.546
verse (poetry) 4.531 6.281
virus 5 2.486
wharf 5.913 5.042
abundant 6.143 7
aisle 4.531 5.226
wired (electric) 4.543 5.242
toward 3.314 5.824
glimpse 4.771 5.606
circus 2.441 6.029
bison 5.536 5.571
school 2.086 5.229
hog 3.6 4.412
coffee 3.588 5.882
tube 3.03 4.844
straw 2.333 5.03
nonsense 3.303 3.394
determine 4.882 6.286
erode 5.771 3.371
meagre 6.433 3.4
smash 2.879 2.875
prosperity 6.412 7.735
sincere 5.206 7.118
ship 2.177 5.667
pyramid 3.645 5.625
legend (tale) 3.829 6.943
sluggish 5.353 2.576
Mom 1.333 7.936
spell 2.629 5.514
stir (make trouble) 4.765 2.457
thirst 2.625 3.75
acrobat 4.177 6.031
educate 3.943 7.441
slip (slide) 2.686 3.912
obesity 5.457 1.971
rough 3.161 3.581
ward (child) 5.731 5.462
improve 3.971 6.941
painter 3.088 5.824
boy 1.424 5.6
litter 3.171 3.257
plug (electric) 2.794 5.324
strange 3.088 3.971
trance 5.114 5.088
jug 2.771 4.97
whisky 5.065 5.613
pollution 4.706 1.727
skirt (go around) 5.559 4.853
plantation 5.8 4.633
stop 1.849 3.452
muck 2.939 3.281
infinite 5.265 6.382
pass (permission) 4.03 6.242
yarn (tale) 5.485 5.529
tennis 3.394 5.871
violet 3.412 6
cap (limit) 5.061 4.091
curtain 3.063 5.188
installed 5 5.857
sole 4.371 5.286
norm 5.559 4.912
ritual 5.206 4.485
whine 3.057 2.6
mushroom 2.882 5.364
owl 2.152 5.818
bank 3.257 4.943
butt 3.438 4.607
amphibian 4.727 5.412
comparison 5.177 4.97
cultural 5.091 6.152
disciple 4.114 5.2
smile 1.788 8.303
candyfloss 2.771 6.735
employ 5.576 5.912
boycott 5.941 3.485
pan (pot) 2.125 5.219
shade 3.029 5.03
fire (gun) 3.529 3.063
motorbike 3 5.469
punch (drink) 5.2 5.829
autopsy 6.118 3.529
deal (bargain) 3.882 6.324
ecstasy 6.353 7.152
frank 5.273 5.152
fingers 1.971 5.206
fall (season) 5.032 6.063
midwife 4.971 6.714
shadow 2.686 4.147
yarn (fabric) 4.8 5
destruction 4.4 2
doctrine 6.719 4.871
loins 6.281 5.094
shudder 4.594 3.281
hammer 2.8 4.629
spirit (intention) 4.857 6.824
faint (weak) 4.229 3
shake 2.5 4.677
first 2.265 6.829
pillow 1.971 6.343
wreck 3.735 2.857
lion 2.046 5.641
estimate 4.771 4.941
verge 5.486 4.618
shape 2.286 5.441
courtyard 4.429 5.559
lovable 3.647 8.294
sanity 5.486 6.343
selfish 3.824 2.235
cast 4.257 4.971
literature 5.353 6.971
every 2.242 5.971
axe 3.471 3.515
dim 3.914 3.727
lyrics 4.375 6.133
push 2 4.286
graduate 5.829 7.743
corrupt 5.412 2.147
aim (objective) 4.529 6.382
bundle 3.914 5.486
septic 6.394 2.849
point (finger) 2.059 3.941
mast 4.667 5.219
classify 5.2 5.4
feet 1.773 4.803
eye 1.8 5.629
venom 4.882 2.576
fiddler 4.879 5.206
continent 4.406 5.543
elk 4.931 5.333
accuse 4.563 2.742
sustain 5.485 6.455
dust 2.914 3.771
infect 4.25 2.406
court (sport) 4.177 5.469
master 4.406 6.031
item 3.529 5.143
virtue 5.314 7.618
unit (measure) 4.743 4.971
soothe 4.029 7.588
theoretical 6.394 5.656
duster 3.657 4.857
drive 2.969 5.774
conceptual 6.281 5.452
fearful 4.273 2.364
jam (preserve) 2.286 5.912
text (phone message) 5.314 6.114
travel 3.344 6.936
upset (unlikely victory) 4.515 3.909
bouquet 4.514 6.714
impaired 5.387 2.406
scientist 3.576 7.03
undesirable 5.229 1.97
cabinet (closet) 3.909 5.061
orangutan 3.364 5.781
seahorse 3.265 5.743
racket (tennis) 3.515 5.469
romantic 4.324 7.677
zephyr 6.778 5.2
spoon 1.875 5.5
daisy 2.314 6.429
symbol 4.059 5.469
strip 4.424 4.807
baker 2.457 6.229
matches 3.424 4.939
sob 3.257 2.706
helicopter 2.788 5.546
bunk 3.6 4.714
feudalism 6.444 3.28
fans 4.059 6.206
exterminate 4.971 2.382
guilty 4.059 2.294
clue 2.941 6.094
crunchy 2.714 5.543
nurse 2.871 7.375
game (sport) 2.382 6
wilt 4.941 3.091
miner 4.114 5
project (protrude) 5.735 4.879
check 3.371 5.088
tension 5.129 3.364
rebound 5.706 3.943
existence 4.944 7.057
plane 2.343 5.765
fortune 4.286 7.657
scale (fish) 3.765 4.794
home 1.875 7.333
tripod 5.147 5.265
spirit (ghost) 4.235 4.088
weird 3.212 4.182
exclusion 5.314 2.571
kite 2.4 6.118

Is this answer correct about this question: Hunt discusses some of the conflicts that existed in mercantile philosophy and society during this time, particularly in relation to the pursuit of profit and the function of the state. How did England "rectify," if you will, the mercantile era's relentless pursuit of riches in the face of long-standing "historical" disapproval of such behavior (e.g., Roman Catholicism)?

Now here is the answer:

England attempted to strike a balance between the drive for profit and traditional values through the spread of Protestantism, which considered diligence, thrift, and financial success as signs of God's favor. This ideology was in direct contrast to the Catholic Church's emphasis on poverty, charity, and humility. By linking the desire of riches with religious aspirations,

England was able to portray her ardent pursuit of trade and commerce as a moral endeavor. To strike a balance between the pursuit of money and conventional values, England also pushed the idea of "enlightened self-interest" This theory from the age of enlightenment suggested that individuals may pursue their passions while also having a constructive influence on society.

In order to reconcile these conflicting principles, England appealed to the Enlightenment ideology. A philosophical movement known as the Enlightenment emerged in Europe during the 18th century and strongly emphasized reason, scientific inquiry, and human freedom.

Intellectuals of the Enlightenment argued against prevailing religious and cultural beliefs in favor of a more logical and secular approach to society and administration. England's approach to trade and commerce was significantly influenced by the philosophy of the Enlightenment, which defended the pursuit of profit as a means of promoting human freedom and economic prosperity. Adam Smith and other Enlightenment thinkers believed that free trade and competition would enhance wealth for everyone and that

government intervention in the economy should be kept to a minimum.

England was able to defend its pursuit of profit while allaying concerns about potential negative effects by embracing the ideas of the Enlightenment. It was also able to balance its mercantile ideology with its enduring religious and cultural traditions by presenting the pursuit of profit as a means of fostering individual freedom and economic growth. Yet it's important to keep in mind that there were challenges in their reunion. The pursuit of wealth, which frequently came at the expense of other nations and their populations, was the root cause of exploitation, slavery, and colonialism, among other evils. Thought leaders of the Enlightenment frequently defended these actions as necessary for cultural diffusion and economic

growth, but they also went against the values of equality and freedom that the Enlightenment espoused.

Company A,  wishes to borrow U.S dollars at a fixed rate of interest. Company B, wishes to borrow Japanese yen at a fixed rate of interest. The amounts required by the two companies are roughly the same at the current exchange rate. The companies have been quoted the following interest rates: 

Company X- Yen 4.8%
Company Y-Yen 6.2%

Company X-Dollars 9.5%

Company Y-Dollars 10.0%

Design  a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 20 basis points per annum. Make a swap appear equally attractive to the two companies and ensure that all foreign exchange risk is assumed by the company X and Company Y.  Also draw the cash flow chart. 

Application 1.3 How can we check the health of a stream?

Nitrates are organic compounds that are a main ingredient in fertilizers. When those fertilizers run off into streams, the nitrates can have a toxic effect on fish. An ecologist studying nitrate pollution in two streams measures nitrate concentrations at 42 places on Stony Brook and 42 places on Mill Brook. The parallel dotplots below display the data.

1. Explain what the dot above 12 in the Stony Brook graph represents.

2. What percent of the nitrate concentration measurements for each stream exceeded 10 mg/L?

Compare the centers of these two distributions.

How important is it for someone to remain grateful in their life? How can someone practice gratitude in a way that will help them to continue to be successful?

1) The power company is considering installing a new plant using natural gas as fuel to generate the same amount of energy. If the natural gas to be used has an energy capacity of 43MJ/m³ (mega joules per cubic meter of gas)

a) Estimate the volume of natural gas needed in m3/yr.

b) Calculate the annual emissions of criteria pollutants including SO₂, NO_x, PM and green house gasses including CO₂ and CO using the appropriate emission factors given in the table below.

2) Given the cost of Bituminous coal is $750/MT and natural gas is $25/m³ calculate the operating costs for the plant per year.

3) Based on the emission estimates and costs which fuel would you recommend as the best fossil fuel power source for the plant? Why?

Although coal is no longer the favored energy source, U.S. coal mines still produced close to a billion short tons of coal. Match the description of the following chemical products obtained from or related to coal.

1. Which answer is a true statement about pH values?

a. A high pH value corresponds to a high H+ concentration

b. Stomach acid has a high pH value.

c. none of the above.

d. Pure water has a pH value of 0.

e. pH is important in life mainly because it effects many everyday applications.

2. The industrial smoke from factories has led to acid rain,which has lowered the pH of a number of lakes having a pH of approximately 5.0. What is the hydronium ion concentration of these lakes ?

a. 5.0 M

b. 10-5 M

c. 105 M

d. log 5.0 M

e. 5.0 %

3. A fish tank containing a number of exotic fish needs a pH of 5.0 , an indicator indicates the pH of the tank is 7.0. What should be done to the hydrogen ion concentration to set the tank to the correct pH.

a. cut it in half.

b. reduce it to 1/100 of its present value.

c. double it.

d. raise it 200 times its present value.

e. raise it 100 times its present value.

4. At 25^oC, a sample of milk of magnesia, used as an antacid, has a pH of 10.50. What is the [OH-] in this solution?

a. 3.2 x 10-11 M

b. 2.8 x 10-5 M

c. 3.2 x 103 M

d. 3.0 x 10-2 M

e. 3.2 x 10-4 M

5. A sample of blood at 25oC has a pH of 7.34. What is the [H3O+] in this solution?

a 4.6 x 10-8 M

b. 6.5 x 10-4 M

c. 2.2 x 109 M

d. 8.7 x 10-1 M

e. 4.6 M

6. An aqueous solution at 25oC has [OH-] = 1.0 x 10-5 M. What is the pH of this solution?

a. 5.00

b. 3.00

c. 2.00

d. 9.00

e. 4.70

7. An aqueous solution at 25oC has [OH-] = 5.0 x 10-10 M. What is the pH of this solution?

a. 10.00

b. 4.70

c. 5.00

d. 9.30

c. 0.70

8. An aqueous solution at 25oC has [H+] = 5.0 x 10-10 M. What is the pH of this solution?

a. 9.30

b. 0.70

c. 5.00

d. 4.70

e. 10.00

9. The pH values of five solutions are given below. Which is the most alkaline?

a. pH = 4.5

b. pH = 13.0

c. pH = 0.0

d. pH = 1.0

e. pH = 7.0

10. Which of the following solutions is basic?

i. [H3O+] = 2 x 10-8 M

ii. [OH-] = 2 x 10-6 M

iii. [H3O+] = 9 x 10-6 M

a. i , ii, and iii

b. iii

c. ii

d. i and ii

Which of the following alkynes goes by the common name of acetylene?

a. ethyne

b.propyne

c. 1-butyne

d. no correct response

Which of the following is typically true about the pH of standard tap water?

(A) Usually varies between pH 5 and pH 9, depending on the city

(B) pH = 7.0 because it is relatively clean

(C) pH > 7.0 because of small concentrations of basic anions (e.g. F-)

(D) pH < 7.0 because of small concentrations of carbonic acid

2) Assume that the government increases the property tax on rental apartments. We can say that in the long run the incidence of taxation will fall on: a. the community at large. b. low income families. c.the landlords. d. the tenants. e. we do not have enough information to determine the incidence of taxation in this case.

3) If people systematically fail to take into account some of the costs arising from their economic activities, the society will face a problem known in economics as: a. consumer surplus. b. producer surplus. c. externalities. d. selfish behavior. e. moral hazard.

4) If Darius has comparative advantage over Alexander in production of helmets, then in that production process: a) Darius must have higher opportunity cost than Alexander. b) Darius must have lower opportunity cost than Alexander. c) Darious and Alexander must have equal opportunity cost. d) any of the above. e) none of the above.

5) A job interviewer may rely on which one of the followings to address the asymmetric information and adverse selection issues regarding a job applicant? a. screening techniques. b. Reputation. c. Signals. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

6) Which one of the followings may be subject to non-exclusion principle? a. a computer software. b. a movie recorded on DVD. c. a pay-per-view event. d. services of the Center for Disease Control. e. all of the above.

7) Which one of the followings could be an economic reason for a space exploration program financed by the government? a. To advance the science frontier. b. To aid the pharmaceutical industry. c. The positive externalities inherent in such program. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

1) "Ability-to-Pay” principle" in taxation states: a. taxes should always be fair. b. taxes should always be neutral. c. people should pay taxes based on their utilization of the system. d. higher income people should pay more taxes than the lower income citizens. e. higher income citizens should carry the burden of taxes and lower income people should be exempt from tax payments

. 2) Assume that the government increases the property tax on rental apartments. We can say that in the long run the incidence of taxation will fall on: a. the community at large. b. low income families. c.the landlords. d. the tenants. e. we do not have enough information to determine the incidence of taxation in this case.

3) If people systematically fail to take into account some of the costs arising from their economic activities, the society will face a problem known in economics as: a. consumer surplus. b. producer surplus. c. externalities. d. selfish behavior. e. moral hazard.

4) If Darius has comparative advantage over Alexander in production of helmets, then in that production process: a) Darius must have higher opportunity cost than Alexander. b) Darius must have lower opportunity cost than Alexander. c) Darious and Alexander must have equal opportunity cost. d) any of the above. e) none of the above.

5) A job interviewer may rely on which one of the followings to address the asymmetric information and adverse selection issues regarding a job applicant? a. screening techniques. b. Reputation. c. Signals. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

6) Which one of the followings may be subject to non-exclusion principle? a. a computer software. b. a movie recorded on DVD. c. a pay-per-view event. d. services of the Center for Disease Control. e. all of the above.

7) Which one of the followings could be an economic reason for a space exploration program financed by the government? a. To advance the science frontier. b. To aid the pharmaceutical industry. c. The positive externalities inherent in such program. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

8) You earn $50,000 a year and you pay $10,000 in income taxes. Your cousin makes $75,000 a year and pays $11,250 in income taxes. This tax system is: a. progressive. b. regressive. c. proportional. d. irrational. e. rational.

9) This year you receive $2,000 bonus from your employer. The tax rate applicable to this bonus amount is called: a. regular tax rate. b. final tax rate. c. average tax rate. d. marginal tax rate. e. only (a) and (c) above.

10) Property taxes are: a. imposed on income. b. based on the value of the taxable item. c. taxes imposed on production or consumption. d. taxes imposed on luxury items. e. none of the above.

11) People in a society can benefit from existence of a fire department without paying for it. Economists refer to this situation as: a. externalities. b. zero marginal cost problem. c. moral hazard. d. free-rider problem. e. any of the above.

12) You face an income tax situation where your first $25,000 of income is tax exempt; the next $25,000 is subject to 10% income taxes; the third $25,000 is subject to 20% income taxes; and any amount after that is subject to 30% income tax. You are currently earning $75,000. Your average and marginal tax rates are________ and ________ respectively. a. 10% and 10% b. 15% and 20% c. 10% and 20% d. 15% and 30% e. none of the above.

13) If the society wants a very clean air and water, then the society a. should elect politicians who pledge to accomplish the task. b. should be willing to accept and pay for the extra costs. c. should insist on moving the polluting industries out of the country. d. should educate the public. e. all of the above.

14) Which one of the following may be considered an externality? a. the enjoyment of watching a movie. b. the pleasure of having neighbors who beautify and properly maintain their yards. c. greenhouse effect caused by some human activities. d. all of the above. e. only (b) and (c) above.

15) Incidence of taxation: a. is the same thing as marginal tax rate. b. is applicable only to taxes that are based on benefit principle. c. shows how ultimately a given tax payment is distributed among taxpayers. d. shows how heavy a tax burden is. e. none of the above.

16) Characteristics of a private good is best evident in which one of the followings? a. Homeland Security. b. Space Program. c. Pay-Per-View events. d. Services of an Accountant. e. Any of the above.

17) Which one of the following items are rival in their consumption? a. a seat on a bench in a public park. b. viewing of a masterpiece paintings collection posted on the internet. c. fish in a public lake. d. all of the above. e. (a) and (c) above.

18) A tax on a tire you purchase for your car is based on a. regressive philosophy of taxation. b. ability to pay principle. c. benefit principle. d. fairness principle. e. any of the above is possible.

19) When a market performs optimally, the outcome is efficient and: a. consumer surplus is maximized. b. producer surplus is maximized. c. total surplus is maximized. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

20) Almost all insurance policies carry some sort of a deductible. This is done to minimize: a. the consequences of free rider problem. b. the consequences of moral hazard. c. the cost to the society. d. the costs of signaling and screening. e. all of the above.

21) Assume that the demand for air travel is highly price elastic. An added $10 excise tax on air travel will be: a. paid entirely by the travelers. b. paid primarily by the travelers. c. paid entirely by the airlines. d. paid primarily by the airlines. e. any of the above is possible.

22) One difference between tariff and quota is that: a) tariff is effective while quota is not. b) quota is effective while tariff is not. c) tariff is a physical limit on quantity of imports while quota is monetary tax on imports. d) quota is a physical limit on quantity of imports while tariff is a monetary tax imporst. e) none of the above.

23) Negative externalities may be dealt with through: a. appropriate regulations. b. establishment and enforcement of private property rights. c. internalization of the external costs. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.

24) Government should continue production of a given public good until: a. the society is satisfied with the quantity of that public good. b. the production of that public good becomes profitable. c. there is no citizen who wants more of that public good. d. the marginal social benefit and marginal social cost of that public good are equal. e. any of the above.

25) Which one of the followings may cause market failure? a. Corporate profits. b. Free exit and free entry. c. perfect information. d. asymmetric information. e. All of the above.

The short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) can be written asfollows: Y = Yf b (p - pe), where Y = real GDP, Yf =full-employment real GDP, p = price level, pe = expected pricelevel, and b is a positive coefficient. The SRAS can be re-writtenas p = pe - (1/b)(Yf) (1/b)(Y). Then which of the following istrue?




A. An increase in pe will cause a rightward shift of the SRAScurve.

B. An increase in pe will cause a leftward shift of the SRAScurve.

C. An increase in Yf will cause a leftward shift of the SRAScurve.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C.

Technological change that increases the marginal productivity of labor in the classical model would cause

A) labor demand, output and the price level to rise.

B) labor demand to fall, the price level to fall, and output to rise

C) labor demand, output and employment to rise.

D) output to rise but labor demand to fall.

US consumption expenditure includes:

A) the purchase of consumption goods made domestically but consumed by foreigners.

B) purchase of goods and services by local government.

C) the production of consumption goods not sold and held in inventory.

D) consumer services, durables and non-durable goods.

Suppose a country has a larger increase in debt in 2014 than it had in 2013. Then other things the same,
a. the supply of loanable funds shifts rightward and the interest rate falls.
b. the supply of loanable funds shifts leftward and the interest rate rises.
c. the demand for loanable funds shifts leftward and the interest rate falls.
d. the demand for loanable funds shifts rightward and the interest rate rises.

Suppose the supply curve and the demand curve both have unitary elasticity at all prices. The price increase to consumers resulting from a specific tax of $1 imposed on sellers will be

A) $1.
B) 50 cents.
C) zero.
D) impossible to calculate without knowing the slope of the supply curve.

I know the answer is B, but cannot figure out why!! Please show work and thanks so much :)

18. Suppose the supply curve and the demand curve both have unitary elasticity at all prices. The price increase to consumers resulting from a specific tax of $1 imposed on sellers will be

A) $1.

B) 50 cents.

C) zero.

D) impossible to calculate without knowing the slope of the supply curve.

14. If the supply curve for orange juice is estimated to be Q = 40 + 2p, then, at a price of $2, the price elasticity of supply is

A) .01.

B) .09.

C) 1.

D) 11.

LET ME KNOW HOW TO SOLVE THIS, NOT ONLY GIVE THE ANSWER

Paul Volcker's monetary policies were effective in fighting

a. the democratic party

b. unemployment

c. inflation

d. both b & c are correct.

THANKS IN ADVANCE!

By the time Paul Volcker took office as the new Federal Reserve chairman in 1979, the inflation rate exceeded 10%. By the end of 1986 the inflation rate had been brought down to 1.9%. Which of the following is true about the Volcker Disinflation? A. lower inflation resulted from a tightening of monetary policy B. by raising the federal funds rate to over 20 %, the Federal Reserve stimulated the economy resulting in lower levels of both inflation and the unemployment rate by the early 1980's c. the unemployment rate was brought down by 1982 but it took longer to reach lower inflation rates D. all of the above E. none of the above

4. By the time Paul Volcker took office as the new Federal Reserve chairman in 1979, both inflation and unemployment were much higher that during the 1950s, the 1960s, and the early 1970s. The Federal Reserve implemented an autonomous tightening of monetary policy that resulted in the famous Volcker Disinflation which was successful in bringing both problems under control. What would have been the likely short-run result had the Federal Reserve conducted an expansionary monetary policy instead?

a. Both inflation and unemployment would have declined.

b. Both inflation and unemployment would have increased.

c. Inflation would have increased but unemployment would have declined.

d. Inflation would have declined but unemployment would have increased.

e. None of the above.

and explain why

Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
a. remains stable
b. expands
c. contracts
d. deflates

If the government finances its spending through taxes which absorb idle funds that were not going to be spent by the private sector, a balanced budget can have an expansionary effect.
True
False

Accumulation and depletion of inventories affect the circular flow of income.
True
False

In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, market forces come into play to
a. enhance profits
b. increase demand
c. eliminate profits
d. separate MR and AR


Under conditions of perfect competition, short-run equilibrium does not necessarily exist where
a. profit is maximized or loss minimized
b. MR = AR
c. MR = MC
d. MR = ATC

Q19. Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
a. true
b. false

Q20. Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
a. market price rises
b. market price falls
c. market price does not change
d. market price changes unpredictably up or down

Q21. The output level that yields maximum profit under perfect competition is where MR equals MC.
a. true
b. false

Q22. Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price
a. equal to marginal revenue
b. less than the consumer is willing to pay
c. less than marginal cost
d. equal to or less than average total cost

Q23. If one firm in a perfectly competitive industry is somehow able to produce at a lower cost than competing firms in the short run,
a. the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in the long run
b. the more efficient firm will earn higher profits than the competing firms in the long run
c. the competing firms will earn higher profits than the more efficient firm in the short run
d. the competing firms will go out of business in the long run

Q24. Producer surplus is the difference between the price the firm is willing to sell its goods and the price it actually receives.
a. true
b. false

Q25. In monopolistic competition, there is no need for advertising.
a. true
b. false

Q26. The Clayton Act prohibits price discrimination.
a. true
b. false

Q27. Monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one seller.
a. true
b. false

Q28. U.S. patents grant a lifetime monopoly on an invention.
a. true
b. false

Q29. A kinked demand curve is associated with
a. perfect competition
b. monopolistic competition
c. an oligopoly
d. public utilities

Q30. In an oligopoly, following a rival's decrease in price tends to eliminate the
a. income effect
b. substitution effect
c. multiplier effect
d. random effect

Q31. In conditions of monopolistic competition,
a. each firm charges the same price
b. there are only two producers
c. there are many firms
d. products are identical

Q32. Forms of imperfect competition include monopoly, oligopoly, and monopolistic competition.
a. true
b. false

Q33. Public utilities are often referred to as
a. supernatural monopolies
b. oligopolistic monopolies
c. natural monopolies
d. competitive monopolies

Q34. Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or an oligopoly.
a. true
b. false

Q35. A firm that is a price maker can
a. limit output and raise prices
b. ignore the law of demand
c. ignore the elasticity of the demand for the product
d. both (a) and (c)

Q36. Firms in monopolistic competition sell a similar but differentiated product.
a. true
b. false

Q37. A cartel is
a. a type of formal collusion
b. a type of informal collusion
c. characterized by a kinked demand curve
d. a form of monopolistic competition

Q38. The operation of the total economy can best be demonstrated by a
a. merry-go-round
b. circular flow
c. Ferris wheel
d. roller coaster

Q39. In the circular flow, business owners receive
a. interest
b. profits
c. rent
d. wages

Q40. If planned investment exceeds planned savings, the economy always expands.
a. true
b. false

Q41. If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
a. remains stable
b. contracts
c. experiences rising prices
d. experiences falling prices

Q42. The circular flow is unaffected by changes in the money supply or interest rates.
a. true
b. false

Q43. During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources is to bid the resources away from other firms.
a. true
b. false

Q44. In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated through payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
a. true
b. false

Q45. The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in consumption.
a. true
b. false

Q46. Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
a. saving, investment, exports, and taxes
b. investment, taxes, and imports
c. saving, taxes, and imports
d. investment, government spending, and exports

Q47. Planned investment may differ from actual investment.
a. true
b. false

Q48. A balanced federal budget tends to have a neutral effect on the economy.
a. true
b. false

Q49. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less than planned saving
a. inventories accumulate
b. output increases
c. prices rise
d. employment increases

Q50. The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to
a. the total value or cost of the output
b. the total value of output plus profit
c. total profit
d. the total value of output less profit