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A common type of error in DNA is produced by spontaneous reaction termed deamination in which a nucleotide base loses an amino group, which is replaced by keto group by a general reaction.

a. write the structures of the bases a, b, c, t and you and predict the products that will be produced by the deamination.

b. After looking that the products of deamination can you propose an explanation why DNA cannot uracil?

Could I please get help with this problem please.

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Bunny GreenfelderLv2
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Related questions

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

QUESTION 1

A mutation caused by exposure to gamma rays is called a spontaneous mutation

a.

True

b.

False

c.

Sometimes, depending on the type of base change

d.

Gamma rays do not cause mutations

QUESTION 2

A recessive mutation affecting an essential biochemical pathway can be detected________

a.

when the organism is heterozygous for that mutation.

b.

when the organism is homozygous for that mutation.

c.

in either homozygous or heterozygous conditions.

d.

only by sequencing (recessive mutations never show a phenotype).

QUESTION 3

During DNA replication, the newly synthesized chain grows by adding

a.

nitrogenous bases

b.

the sugar-phosphate backbone

c.

nucleosides

d.

dNTPs

QUESTION 4

During replication, the DNA strand 5’- AAGTCTAGCCTAG -3’ will serve as a template for the polymerization of:

a.

5’- CTAGGCTAGACTT -3’

b.

5’ - TTCAGATCGGATC -3’

c.

5’ - GATCCGATCTGAA -3’

d.

3’ - AAGTCTAGCCTAG -5’

QUESTIOn 5

Given the following DNA sequences, select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

Sequence 1:

5’-TGGACGCTAA-3’

3’-ACCTGCGATT-5’

Sequence 2:

5’-AATCGCAGGT-3’

3’-TTAGCGTCCA-5’

Sequence 3:

5’-ACCTGCGATT-3’

3’-TGGACGCTAA-5’

a.

Sequences 1 and 2 are the same

b.

Sequences 1 and 3 are the same

c.

Sequences 2 and 3 are the same

d.

Sequences 1, 2 and 3 are all different

QUESTION 6

Repetitive sequences in the genome are hotspots for:

a.

Deamination

b.

Depurination

c.

Thymine dimer formation

d.

Replication errors

QUESTION 7

Select which statement(s) about the Ames test is(are) correct

a.

it has been designed to understand mutation repair systems in Salmonella typhimurium

b.

it uses mammalian liver extract

c.

it allows to study whether chemical compounds or their enzymatic breakdown products are mutagenic

d.

it is based on whether a chemical compound causes reversion mutations from his+ to his-

e.

two of the above are correct

f.

three of the above are correct

QUESTION 8

Select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

a.

All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by the carbons in the sugar backbone.

b.

All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.

c.

In order to form proper base pairs in a double stranded DNA molecule, the two strands must run in opposite directions.

d.

A and C are correct.

e.

B and C are correct.

QUESTION 9

Studies of gene mutation frequencies have shown that:

a.

mutations are rare, and genomes are generally stable.

b.

mutation frequencies differ among organisms and also between genes, suggesting certain genes are more susceptible to mutation.

c.

mutation frequencies are consistent between organisms, and each region of DNA is equally susceptible to random mutations.

d.

Both A and B are correct.

e.

Both A and C are correct.

QUESTION 10

The compound 5-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) is a derivative of uracil, and if BrdU becomes incorporated during DNA replication, it pairs with adenine. This compound is best classified as which type of mutagen?

a.

base analog

b.

base inducer

c.

intercalating agent

d.

oxidative agent

e.

alkylating agent

QUESTION 11

The rate of mutation of the fruit fly is higher than the rate of mutation of Algae

True

False

QUESTION 12

Thymine dimers are most commonly caused by which of the following?

a.

X-rays

b.

Alkylating agents

c.

U.V. irradiation

d.

DNA intercalating agents

QUESTION 13

What chemical group is found in the 3’ end of a DNA strand?

a.

an alcohol

b.

a hydroxyl

c.

a methyl

d.

a phosphate

QUESTION 14

What chemical group is found in the 5’ end of a DNA strand?

a.

an alcohol

b.

a hydroxyl

c.

a methyl

d.

a phosphate

QUESTION 15

Which is the correct order of molecules binding to DNA during DNA replication?

a.

Helicase, SSB, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase

b.

SSB, DNA pol I, ligase, helicase, DNA pol I, primase

c.

primase, helicase, DNA pol III, ligase, DNA pol I, SSB

d.

SSB, helicase, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase

QUESTION 16

Which statement(s) is(are) correct about strand slippage?

a.

It can cause disorders such as Huntingon disease.

b.

It is a process that causes mutations altering the number of DNA repeats.

c.

It is a process that incorporates nucleotide base analogs and trinucleotide repeats.

d.

a and b are correct.

e.

b and c are correct.

f.

a, b and c are correct.

help needed asap.

Multiple answers to each question might be possible!

You decide to identify the CFTR mutation by analyzing the genomic DNA of your patients compared to healthy individuals. You specifically are looking to see whether a specific 3' gene truncation has occurred in the patients. You will determine this using hybridization techniques with samples from healthy and CF patients. Which of the following will allow you to accomplish this?

Using an RNA probe complementary to the region not removed by the truncation.

Using an RNA probe complementary to the region removed by the truncation.

Using an DNA probe complementary to the region not removed by the truncation.

Using an DNA probe complementary to the region removed by the truncation.

To conduct the hybridization experiment, you are trying to decide between using a DNA or RNA probe. Which would be ideal to use and why?

As both are composed of nucleic acids, using either would result in identical results.

An RNA probe because RNA has uracil bases.

An RNA probe because it could also be used in a translation experiment.

A DNA probe because it is more stable than RNA.

A DNA probe because RNA cannot bind to DNA.

One step of the Hershey/Chase experiment involved blending the virus/cell mixture before centrifugation and probing the pellet for radioactivity. Why was the blending step necessary?

To collect the bacteria at the bottom of the tube.

To break open the bacteria to release the genome.

To separate the bacteria from the bacteriophages.

To be able to detect the radioactivity.

Imagine Hershey/Chase had used an RNA virus (genome composed of RNA) instead of a DNA virus in their experiment. Would radioactivity still have been found in the pellet?

No, because only DNA can be labeled with radioactivity.

No, because the RNA genome would not enter the bacteria upon infection.

No, because while DNA and RNA nucleotides are similar, they are not identical.

Yes, because DNA and RNA nucleotides are similar.

Yes, because genome in any form (DNA, RNA, protein) would be labeled similarly.

The human genome consists mostly of non-coding DNA. Which of the following are benefits of this?

Random DNA mutations generally won't affect RNA and protein function.

It is faster to duplicate the genome when these are present.

The existence of introns can lead to multiple variations of proteins encoded by a single gene.

It is unlikely transposons would exist in the genome if there was too much protein coding DNA.

Explain the 5’ to 3’ directionality of a DNA stand.

It is due to the fact that the free 5’ carbon is on one end and the free 3’ carbon is on the other

It is due to the fact that new nucleotide are added to the 5’ carbon of the previous nucleotide

It is due to the fact that there are 3 phosphate groups attached to the 5’ carbon

It is due to the fact the complementary strand is 3’ to 5’

More than one of the above explain the 5’ to 3’ directionality

You accidentally add a mutant dNTP (which has an H instead of an OH connected to the 3’ carbon) to a reaction where DNA is being replicated. Which of the following is true of this mutant dNTP?

It can be incorporated into DNA strand but cannot form a phosphodiester bond with an incoming wild type dNTP

It can be incorporated into a DNA strand but cannot base pair with a complementary nucleotide

It can be incorporated into a DNA strand and can form a phosphodiester bond with an incoming dNTP, but only if it is another mutant dNTP

It cannot be incorporated into a DNA strand.

Why does DNA polymerase utilize an RNA primer?

DNA polymerase is unable to initiate strand synthesis but RNA polymerase can

DNA polymerase can only add a dNTP to an rNTP

DNA synthesis proceeds in the 3’ to 5’ when initiating strand synthesis

Chromosomal DNA contains interspersed RNA fragments

The RNA primer increases stability of the newly synthesized strand

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