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12 Apr 2019

1. Compare and contrast between molds versus yeasts.

2. Human infectious diseases are caused by fungi classified as superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, and systemic mycoses. What specific characteristics distinguish each of these categories?

3. What are the regions of the human body where mycotic diseases can be observed?

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12 Apr 2019

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2260 A&P 1 Lecture - Unit 1

Beware! ANYTHING within the assigned readings or discussed in lecture is fair game whether it is part of this list or not!!

What is the study of Anatomy? Provide an example of an anatomical study.

What is the study of Physiology? Provide an example of a physiological study.

List the characteristics of living things and briefly discuss them.

List the levels of organization from smallest to largest. Provide a specific example for each level.

Compare/Contrast sections and planes.

What are the distinguishing characteristics of the anatomical position?

Practice placing a section through a location in the body and then determine what structures would be made visible by that section in that location. For example if a coronal (frontal) section were made in the thoracic region (would be able to see both lungs, the heart, depending on the exact location of the cut, maybe the esophagus and /or the trachea)

Practice the directional terms using them to describe the locational relationship between two body regions (use the technical terms for those body regions, (i.e. if the original post used __ is superior to blank, the opposite would be ___ is inferior to __).

Distinguish between the nine abdominal regions and four quadrants and indicate what major organ(s) would be found deep to that region or quadrant.

Why is it important to study the language of anatomy and physiology if one is going into the medical field?

Define homeostasis. What thing (or things) in our body maintains homeostasis? And what regulates those "things"?

What is the likely result if homeostasis is not maintained?

13. What are the components of feedback mechanisms? What is the function of each component?

14. Discuss negative feedback mechanisms. Give a specific example of one.

Discuss positive feedback mechanisms. Give a specific example of one.

Discuss the levels of organization, list the various levels and provide a specific example of each level.

What is matter?

What are elements? What are the four most common elements of the human body?

Distinguish between atoms, and molecules. Provide an example of each.

What information is provided by the molecular formula? For example what can be said of the formula C₆H₁₂O_6, the molecular formula for glucose?

Briefly distinguish between organic and inorganic molecules. Recall that MY preferred defining quality differs from what the text says!

Consider/review the important inorganic molecules discussed in chp 2 and describe their importance in the human body.

Distinguish between acids and bases. Which of these will have relatively more free H+ ions?

What is the pH range of an acid? Of a base? What would be the pH value of a solution where the number of H+ ions = OH- ions?

What are the states of acidosis and alkalosis with reference to blood pH values?

Consider/review the important organic molecules discussed in chp 2 and describe their general importance in the human body.

Distinguish between solvent and solute.

Discuss the term osmolarity.

Consider/review the four types of lipids and discuss their individual function in the human body. Lipids are not composed of monomers but they do have âbuilding blocksâ, what are these building blocks?

What are the "building blocks" or monomers (looking for a group or class name) of a carbohydrate polymer? Name the five (5) types of carbohydrate monomers.

When two of these carbohydrate monomers are bonded together what "class" of carbohydrate is formed? What are the types of this "class"? What is the source (food) for each of these?

When three or more of these monomers are bonded together they form which "class" of carbohydrate? Which one of these stores excess carbs in animals (mainly in the liver)? Which one stores excess carbs in plants? And which one is indigestible by the human gut, but is important because it provides "bulk" in the form of fiber and helps keep fecal matter moving in the intestines?

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

Briefly describe deoxyribonucleic acid including its general function.

Briefly describe ribonucleic acid including its general function.

What are the monomers of proteins? What kind of bond holds the monomers together?

Distinguish between oligopeptides and polypeptides.

Choose TWO general functions of proteins based on the globular vs fibrous classification of proteins, the class of protein that performs that function and a specific example for each.

What events or environments denature a protein? What has happened if a protein is denatured? What happens to its function if it is denatured?

What class of organic molecules are enzymes and what do they do in the body? How do they do their function? In other words, what is their mechanism of action/what do they change to do their job?

What are enzyme co-factors and what is their role in enzyme action?

How are enzymes regulated?

1. All of the following characteristics of skin help make it a good defensive barrier against pathogenic microbes EXCEPT:

Springy elasticity

Saltiness due to production of sweat from sweat glands

Acidic pH due to oily compound (sebum) metabolism

Normal microflora of skin

Constant sloughing off of old dead epithelial skin cells

2. The majority of microorganisms comprising the normal microflora inhabiting the skin surface are:

Gram-positive fungi of the single-celled yeasts

Gram-positive bacteria of the Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, Corynebacterium, and Proprionibacterium genera

Gram-negative bacteria of the Enterobacteriaceae family

Gram-negative bacteria of the Neisseria, Pseudomonas, and Salmonella genera

All of the above

3. The pus-producing skin infection (pyoderma) can be caused by:

Staphylococci

Streptococci

Corynebacteria

A combination of staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria

All of these

4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of impetigo?

Common in children

Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus

Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

Is highly contagious

Can be caused by pseudomonads

5. Which of the following is NOT true about acne?

It is most commonly the result of male sex hormones that stimulate increased sebaceous gland growth and secretion of sebum.

Propionibacterium acnes in particular can turn a mild case of acne into a severe case by causing increased and widespread inflammation, tissue destruction, and scarring.

Common treatments are frequent cleansing of the skin and topical ointments that reduce the risk of infection.

Low doses of oral antibiotics are often prescribed to prevent bacterial infections of lesions and are without side effects.

In most cases, acne disappears or decreases in severity on its own as the body adjusts to the hormonal changes of puberty and sebaceous gland function stabilizes.

6. Which of the following often cause nosocomial infections in burn patients?

Streptococcus pyogenes

Serratia marcescens

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

b and c

7. Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with:

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium perfringenes

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

8. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by:

Chlamydia trachomatis

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

9. Chickenpox is a disease of chickens and is caused by the poxvirus, cowpox is a disease of cattle, and smallpox is a human disease that commonly affects only children. True or false?

10. Antibiotic is used to treat the eyes of newborn infants when:

The mother has gonorrhea

The mother has genital herpes

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the newborn's eyes

Always

The mother has a history of multiple sex partners

11. The virus used to immunize individuals against smallpox causes the disease:

Chickenpox

Measles

Cowpox

Molluscum contagiosum

Warts

12. Which of the following fungal diseases result from an opportunistic fungal infection?

Zygomycoses

Aspergillosis

Candidasis

All of the above

None of the above

13. Rheumatic fever is caused by which organism?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

Streptococcus pyogenes

14. Which of the following components of the respiratory system is normally free of microorganisms?

Lungs

Nasal cavity

Pharynx

Trachea

Bronchi

15. Which of the following is true about diphtheria?

It is caused by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infected with a prophage that carries an exotoxin-producing gene.

A pseudomembrane composed of Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells, damaged epithelial cells, fibrin, and blood cells forms that can block the airway and cause suffocation.

The exotoxin spreads throughout the body damaging multiple organ system by interfering with cellular protein synthesis.

It can be prevented with DTP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine and treated with both antitoxin and antibiotics.

All of the above are true.

coppertrout695

Reflex Lab Procedures for Reflex Lab In this lab we will test muscle stretch reflexes and cutaneous reflexes. A partner is needed to be the subject for this lab. Purpose: To test and observe normal muscle stretch and cutaneous reflexes. Equipment: Reflex hammer, Background: In the most narrow sense, a reflex is an involuntary, unpremeditated response by the body to an external stimulus. Reflexes allow reaction to a stimulus more quickly than would be possible if conscious thought were involved. A reflex can be described as a stimulus-response cycle. Most reflexes involve the brainstem or the spinal cord and do not require interaction from higher brain centers. The muscle stretch reflexes are the simplest reflexes. They involve the sensory neuron synapsing directly upon the motor neuron. They are sometimes called monosynaptic reflexes. They are also called spinal reflexes because the reflexive action does not require input from the brain. The other reflexes we will be testing in this lab are the cutaneous reflexes. They are also called superficial reflexes because the receptors are in the superficial areas of the body. They are more complex and require the message to go up the spinal cord to the brain and then back down to elicit the response. These can be used to test for CNS injury. There are five components to a reflex; these components together are called the reflex arc. The components are as follows: sensory receptor â receives the stimulus and generates an impulse (is usually a nerve ending) afferent pathway â a neuron that carries the impulse from the receptor to a central integrating center integrating center âthis is where the afferent component connects to the efferent component- this is in the CNS. One or more synapses must occur here. Interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes but are always found in all other types of reflexes. efferent pathway - a neuron that carries the impulse from the integrating center to an effector. effector -receives the impulse and responds. The effector may by skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, or glands.

Part I. Stretch reflexes.

First do muscle stretch reflexes which are also called deep tendon reflexes.

It is important the subject relax the muscle being tested. Tell the subject to let the muscle go limp.

Rate each response according to the following scale:

+4 very brisk, hyperactive, large movement at joint.

+3 brisker than average, medium movement at joint

+2 average, small movement at joint

+1 somewhat diminished, very small or no movement at joint

0 no response

A. Patellar (also called the knee jerk reflex) â activation of femoral nerve. The receptor is located in the quadriceps muscle, the effector is the quadriceps muscle. The nerve ending is responding to the stretch of the muscle caused by striking the tendon.

1. A subject is allowed to sit comfortably on a table with knees dangling over the edge.

2. Using a reflex hammer (or substitute as described above) strike the patellar tendon just below the kneecap.

3. Observe the action caused by the reflex.

4. Record your results using the graded scale above.

B. Biceps Reflex â activation of the musculocutaneous nerve

1. Rest subjectâs left forearm along your left forearm.

2. Subjectâs hand should rest in or near the bend of your elbow.

3. Press your left thumb on the subjectâs biceps tendon, apply a little pressure.

4. Strike your thumb with the reflex hammer, this will transfer the pressure to the biceps tendon.

5. Watch carefully for twitching of the biceps muscle. Usually, the forearm will not move.

6. Record your results using the graded scale above.

C. Triceps reflex â activation of the radial nerve.

This is a difficult reflex to observe, but give it a try.

1. The subject should have the arm relaxed and elbow bent.

2. Support the entire weight of the arm with your left hand.

3. Strike the triceps tendons, just above the elbow.

4. Watch carefully for twitching of the biceps muscle.

5. Record your results using the graded scale above.

Both B and C show up best on someone who doesnât have a lot of subcutaneous fat and who has good muscle definition.

D. Achilles reflex (also called ankle-jerk reflex) â activation of the poplitealnerve. The principle is similar to the knee-jerk reflex. Here the stretch receptors are located in the gastrocnemius muscle.

1. Have the subject take her/his shoes and socks off, exposing the Achilles tendon on the back of the ankle.

2. Strike the Achilles with the reflex hammer (or substitute) and observe the extension of the foot downward.

3. Record the results using the graded scale above.

Part II. Cutaneous reflexes

A. Plantar reflex

This reflex differs from the four muscle stretch reflexes. In this reflex, receptors are stimulated in the sole of the foot (cutaneous receptors). The reflex pathway travels up the leg to the integrating center. While in the integrating center, the reflex travels up the spinal cord through the pyramidal tracts, which are nerve pathways between the spinal cord and brain.

1. The subject needs to lie on his or her back, with shoes and socks off.

2. Using the end of the handle of the reflex hammer, trace a path along the lateral side from heel to the little toe to the big toe.

3. Observe for the flexion (toe curling) which is recorded as a normal plantar reflex.

4. If the toes curl, this is called a Negative Babinski response and is normal. If the toes flare, then an abnormal response is recorded and is called a Positive Babinski response and indicates CNS damage.

5. Record the results.

B. Ciliospinal reflex â This reflexive pathway is from the skin to the thoracic spinal cord, through the sympathetic trunk, then to the dilator pupillae muscle of the eye. This is another test of the CNS.

1. Pinch the back of the subjectâs neck,

2. Watch pupils for a response.

3. A normal response is dilation of the pupil.

4. Record your results.