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1. The lungfish Protopterus aethiopicus has a genome 38 timeslarger than that of humans. Most of the DNA in this species isnoncoding repetitive DNA. What type of library would allow you tocompare just the genes in the lungfish to the genes in humans?

Select one:

a. Transgenic library

b. Genomic library

c. cDNA library

d. PCR library

e. Knockout library

2.Gel electrophoresis can be used to separate DNA on the basisof

Select one:

a. nucleotide content.

b. Both a and b

c. the probe used.

d. size.

e. electrical charge.

3.Which of the following is FALSE of DNA sequences within a cDNAlibrary?

Select one:

a. They do not contain promoters.

b. They do not contain exons.

c. They do not contain introns.

d. They do not contain enhancers.

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Nelly Stracke
Nelly StrackeLv2
28 Sep 2019

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Related questions

Multiple choice questions, I need the CORRECT ANSWERS, 3500points

1.The promoter is in region_____________.

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.5

2.The stop codon is identified in region __________

a.4

b.5

c.6

d.7

e.8

3.A mutation is region 8 would be expected to:

a.disrupt transcription

b.disrupt ribosome

c.disrupt DNA polymerase binding

d.disrupt splicing

e.none of the above

4.Which is responsible for the transcription of structural genesin eukaryotes?

a.RNA polymerase I

b.RNA polymerase II

c.RNA polymerase III

d.DNA polymerase

E.RNA Synthesis

5.The eukaryotic TATA box is directly bound by a basaltranscription factor known as:

a.TBF

b.TBP

c.TAF

D.TPP

E.TAT

6.mOST TRANSCRIPTIONAL ACTIVATOR proteins in eukarypotesfunction in the cell as:

a.monomers

b.dimers

c.trimers

d.tetramers

e.pentamers

7.The basal level of transcription of eukaryotic genes is quitehigh in vitro systems. This is because:

a.activation are present

b.formation of chromatin dos not occur in vitro

c.basal transcription factors are present

d.a and c

e.none of the above

8.Transcriptional repression by methylation of DNA involves:

a.methylation of adenine (A) bases of the sequence GATC

b.methylation of cytosine (C) bases of th sequence GATC

c.mthylation of cytosin (C) bases in CpG nuclotides

d.Methylation of guanosine (G) bases in CpG nucleotides

e.acetylation of hisone proteins

9.A eukaryotic DNA sequence that can increase the level oftranscription is called:

a. a transcription factor

b.a transcritpional activator

c.TATA box

d.an enhancer

e.a co-activator

10.Which is generally true of eukaryotic transcriptionalregulation?

a.activators and reprssors bind to the promoter while basalfactors bind to the enhances

b.basal factors bind to the promoter, while activators bind tothe enhancers

c.activators bind to the promoter while basal factors andrprssors bind to th enhancers

d.repressors bind to the promoter whil basal factors andactivators bind to the enhancers

e.activators and basal factors bind to the promtoer whilereprssors bind to the enhancers

11.You wish to sequence the promoters region of the mouse generab.To do this, you need to construct a library and then search forthe gene sequence.You have a DNA probe based on the sequence of theprotein coding region.Which of th follwoing strategies would youfollow in order to carry this out?

A.construct a genomic library and screen for the promoter usingPCR

b.construct a cDNA library and screen for the promotoer usingPCR

c.construct a genomic library and screen for the promoter usingPCR

d.Construct a cDNA library and screen for the promoter usingcolony hybridization

e.all of the above

12.if one were to examine th clones in a cDNA library derivedfrom th heart muscle cells and the clones in a cDNA library derivdfrom prancreatic cells, you would find that:

a.the two libraries would hav the same cloned sequences

b.the two libraries would have completely different clonesequences from one another

c.the two libraries would share some common clond sequences, butwould each have some sequences unique to that library, not to befound in the other

d.the sequences from both would also b the same as those foundin the genomic library

e.none of th above

13.In a particular population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, thefrequency of recssive allele b for a particular gne is0.01.Assuming that there are only two alleles for the gene, whatwould b th expected frequency for dominant allele B in th nextgeneration?

a.0.01

b.0.02

c.0.98

d.0.99

e.none of the above

14.White wool in the sheep is controlled by a dominant allele R,and black wool by the recessive allele r.In an isolated popualtionof 6530 sheep, 514 are balck, 4981 are hterozygous, 1035 arhomozygous white. When will this population be expected to reachHardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a.in the next generation

b.in two generations

c.it already is in equilibrium

d.impossible to tell

e.it will not reach equilibrium

15.A population has th following genotypic disturbutions:

A^M A^M=1787, A^M A^O=2011, A^OA^O=2331.Is this population atH-W equilibrium?

a.yes, with allele frequencies of p=0.45562 and q=0.54437

b.yes, with frequencies of p=0.54437 and q=0.37862

c.no, with allele frequencies of p=0.45562 and q=0.37862

d.no, with xpectd genotypic ratios of p^2=1272, 2pq=3040, andq^2=1826

e.yes, with expctd genotypic frequencies of p^2=1778, 2pq=2015,and q^2=2336

16.The result of the Luria-Delbruck fluctuation exprimentindicatd that:

a. most bacteria are naturally resistant to phage

b.a low level of bacteria become resistant to phage by mutationupon exposure to phage

c.most bacteria become resistant to phage by mutation uponexposure to phag

d.bacteria become resistant to phag by random spontaneousmutation

e.bacteria become resistant to phag by acquiring resistanttraists upon repeated exposure

17.DNA probes are used for:

a.restriction ndonuclease analysis

b.sequencing

c.PCR

d.DNA library analysis

e.all of th above

18.Colony hybridization is used to:

a.isloate a gne of interest froma DNA library

b.analyze the presence or number of copies of a particular DNAsegment in a chromosome

c.determine the size of a gene or sequencing of interest

d.replace the more tediuos method of library screening.

e.all of the above

19.For the colony hybridization procedure, which of thefollowing is true:

a.individual colonies are isolated and analyzed by DNAsequencing

b.the DNA fragments are separated by size prior to transfer ontonitrocellulose membrane

c.the plasmid DNA must be denatured before hybridization

d.the relative positions of DNA fragments on the agarose gel arepreserved after transfer to the nitrocllulose membrane

e.the cloned target sequence is detected by staining withthidium bromide

20.The following strand of DNA is to be used for sequencing3'CGACTGACTCGACGGCCTAGCTATAG.The primer is GCTGACTG.The number ofDNA fragments resulting from the ddCTP tube is expectd to be:

a.7

b.5

c.8

d.4

e.6

21.Which of the following is not true of heterozygosity for agene deletion?

a.it is often detrimental if there is a gene dosage effect.

b.as long as one wildtype copy of any deleted gene is presnt onthe homologous chromosome, no phenotypic consequnces willresult.

c.it could be detected by Southern blot analysis

d.it could be detected by PCR analysis

e.none of the above

22.Robertsonian translocation arise from:

a.breaks at or near the chromosome of two acrocentricchromosomes

b.breaks at or near th centromeres of two metacentricchromosomes

c.breaks at or near th centromeres of one acrocentric and onemetacentric chromosome

d.breaks in a large and a small chromosomes

e.transposable elements

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)

Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)

Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)

In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)

In all species A + T = G + C.

E)

DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)

the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)

the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)

Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)

Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)

Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)

A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)

Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)

Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)

Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)

When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)

None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)

DNA ligase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Alkaline phosphatase

C)

DNA ligase

D)

DNA polymerase I

E)

Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)

Alkaline phosphatase

B)

Reverse transcriptase

C)

Restriction endonuclease

D)

DNA ligase

E)

DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)

An origin of replication

B)

A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)

Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)

Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)

All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)

Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)

cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)

Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)

Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)

cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A)

dNTPs

B)

DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)

DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)

Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)

Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)

Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)

Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)

Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)

Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)

A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)

The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)

The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)

It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)

The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)

It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)

Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)

Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)

Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)

A and B might work.

E)

A, B, and C might work.

F)

None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)

The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)

A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)

Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)

Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)

The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

A)

3 Gm

B)

300 Kb

C)

3 Mb

D)

3 Gb

E)

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)

Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)

Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)

Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)

Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)

Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

*************PLEASE ANSWER THIS ONLY IF YOU CAN ANSWER ALL OF THE QUESTIONS, PLEASE DO NOT JUST ANSWER 1 OR 2. THANK YOU SO MUCH!!!!*****************

1.) The chance that an individual in the United States will experience some form of cancer in his or her lifetime is

A) 1 in 3.

B) 1 in 10.

C) 1 in 25.

D) 1 in 1,000.

E) 1 in 10,000.

2) A DNA sequence that can be read the same backward and forward is called a(n)

A) repetitive code.

B) palindrome.

C) plasmid sequence.

D) DNA fingerprint.

E) exon.

3.) Organisms that can contain genes introduced from other species are referred to as

A) bacteria.

B) plasmids.

C) manipulated.

D) genomic.

E) transgenic

4.) Prior to genetic engineering, insulin for humans with insulin-dependent diabetes was extracted from pigs and cattle. Presently insulin is produced by transgenic

A) humans.

B) chickens.

C) viruses.

D) bacteria.

E) monkeys.

5.) Which one of the following human proteins, produced by transgenic bacteria, is used to prevent or break down blood clots?

A) insulin

B) tissue plasminogen activator

C) erythropoietin

D) growth hormone

E) factor VIII

6.) The first successful treatment of a human genetic disorder through gene therapy was with a disorder known as:

A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease.

B) diabetes mellitus.

C) human dwarfism.

D) hemophilia.

E) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

7.) Which one of the following carcinogens accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths?

A) environmental chemicals (e.g., asbestos, pesticides, soot, coal tar)

B) tobacco smoke

C) ultraviolet light

D) ionizing radiation (X rays)

E) radon gas

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