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ultramarinehare206Lv1

28 Sep 2019

Explain in simple terms how each nephron acts as a tiny blood filter as it produces urine. Where do most waste products from the blood end up? Where do most essential items of the blood end up? How do filtration, reabsorption, and secretion affect the movement of these materials in or out of the nephron?

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Sixta KovacekLv2

28 Sep 2019

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Related questions

1) A drop of urine would follow this path

a) renal pyramid/major calyx/minor calyx/renal pelvis/ureter

b) minor calyx/major calyx/renal pyramid/renal pelvis/ureter

c) renal pelvis/minor calyx/major calyx/renal pyramid/ureter

d) renal pyramid/minor calyx/major calyx/renal pelvis/ureter

2) The production of filtrate starts at

a) Loop of Henle

b) capsular space

c) distal convoluted tubule

d) proximal convoluted tubule

3) Major reabsorption of water happens by ____at the _____

a) contransport, distal convoluted tubules

b) Cl- shift, nephron loop

c) countercurrent, nephron loop

d) countercurrent, ureter

4) Angiotensin II causes production of ____to increase Na + reabsorption in the _________

a) renin; collecting duct

b) aldosterone; PCT

c) ADH; nephron loop

d) aldosterone; collecting duct

5) Most of the reabsorbed compounds from the filtrate end up in the

a) peritubular capillary

b) urine

c) nephron loop

d) DCT

6) Reabsorption of urea happens by

a) transcellular movement

b) by paracellular movement

c) by cotransport with glucose

d) by HCO3- movement

7) Transport Maximum, in urinary system terms, refers to

a) proteins performing âtransportâ out of the filtrate at maximum rate

b) the reason why a diabetic produces large volumes of diluted urine

c) excess filtrate components being urinated out of the body

d) All choices are correct

8) Urine does not drop below pH 4.5 because

a) proteins that move H+ into filtrate stop working when too much H+ builds up in filtrate

b) proteins in urine neutralize acid

c) H+ are always buffered

d) the buffering system in urine does not run out

9) Hyperkalemia will

a) activate adrenal cells to secrete aldosterone

b) can stop the heart

c) No choices are correct

d) cause reduced excitability of neurons

e) All choices are correct

10)In your body, chloride (Cl-) can be found in its highest concentration in

a) extracellular fluid

b) intracellular fluid

c) Neither choice is correct

11) Diuretic abuse leads to

a) All choices are correct

b) two choices are correct

c) No choice is correct

d) dehydration

e) athletes being accused of doping

f) hypotonic hydration

12) Long diffusion distance, low blood pressure, and impaired circulation are the result of

a) hypernatremia

b) edema

c) hyperkalemia

d) water toxicity

13) In males FSH is under feedback control by _____ and is down regulated when _________reaches high concentrations

a) inhibin, testosterone/sperm #s

b) testosterone, inhibin/sustentocyte #s

c) ADH, inhibin/sustentocyte #s

d) LH, testosterone/sperm #s

14) Testosterone production is done by ____-cells

a) posterior pituitary

b ) interstitial endocrine

c) anterior pituitary

d) sustentocytes

15) Upon _____of estrogen/progesterone, the ____phase of the uterine cycle begins

a) increase; menstrual

b) decrease; menstrual

c) increase; proliferative

d) decrease; secretory

16) Progesterone

a) All choices are correct

b) is low in the luteal phase

c) No choices are correct

d) raises in the follicular phase

e) is high along with estrogen during the follicular phase

17) Which nephron is most responsible for urine concentration?

a) cortical nephrons

b) Juxtamedullary nephrons

c) Neither

carminesalmon877

1. Which hormone responsible for calcium absorption is synthesized by the kidneys?
a. Calcitriol b. Glucagon c. Erythropoietin d. Antidiuretic hormone

2. Which of the following regulations is not performed by the kidney?
a. acid-base balance b. blood pressure c. glycolysis d. blood production

3. The hormone require for blood pressure regulation and release by the kidney is _____.
a. erythropoietin b. renin c. calcitriol

4. Almost all nutrients and about 65% of sodium are actively reabsorbed in this part of the nephron, transported from the filtrate back to the plasma.
a. proximal tubule b. descending limb c. ascending limb d. collecting duct

5. Which site is where most regulation happens?
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

6. The site for countercurrent multiplier and exchange in the nephron is ________.
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

7. The function of the kidneys is evaluated by measuring the
a. tubular reabsorption b. tubular secretion c. glomerular filtration rate

8. Abnormal amount of leukocytes in urine is termed _____.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. nitrituria

9. In diabetes mellitus the clinical term for the abnormal urinalysis is called ________.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. proteinuria

10. The possible cause of increase ____________ in urine is liver pathology o gallstones.
a. bile b. erythrocytes c. nitrites d. glucose e. protein

11. Proteinuria is caused by increase glomerular permeability due to kidney trauma, heavy mental, toxins, exertion, hypertension or glomerular nephritis.
a. True b. False

12. The normal pH of urine ranges from _____ to _____.
a. 2.2, 4.5 b. 10.3, 13.5 c. 8.0, 10.2 d. 4.5, 8.0 e. 6.0, 7.0

13. The average specific gravity of urine is slightly higher than 1.000 because the solutes it contains.
a. True b. False

14. __________ is the term for the normal smell of fresh urine.
a. Asparagus b. Nitrites c. Urinoid d. Ammonia

15. The concentration of this pigment in urine change the color of it.
a. Urinoid b. Nitrites c. Urobilin d. Calcium

16. The failure of a kidney to develop is termed _________________.
a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidney
c. supernumerary kidney d. pelvic kidney

17 Renal ptosis refers to the ___________ movement of the kidney within the abdominal cavity.
a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior

18. Renal failure refers to the diminish o absent renal function caused by the destruction of about ___ of the kidney.
a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 90%

19. Renal calculus may occur from crystallized glucose after high levels in blood.
a. True b. False

20. An untreated UTI that spread to the kidneys is termed ____________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

21. Pain is an associated symptom of an UTI, and this is termed as __________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

22. Incontinence refers to ___________ whereas retention refers to____________
a. inability to involuntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally.
b. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to voluntary control urination
c. inability to voluntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally
d. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to involuntary control urination

23. All of the following are physical characteristics of urine except:
a. Color and transparency b. Odor c. pH d. specific gravity e. taste

24. Preformed water includes the water absorbed from food and drink whereas metabolic water includes the water from cellular respiration and dehydration.
a. True b. False

25. Sensible water los is not measured. In contrast insensible water loss is measured and includes sweat and transpiration.
a. True b, False

26. ____________ water loss is dependent upon the degree of hydration and is hormonally regulated in the tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative
27. ___________ water loss is a loss of water that always occur regales of the state of hydration of the body.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative

28. Fluid is lost from the body through the following normal mechanism except:
a. breathing b. sweating c. defecation d. urination e. vomiting

29. Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬The stimuli that activates the thirst center include all of the following except:
a. decreased salivary secretions b. distention of the stomach
c. increased blood osmolality d. decreased blood pressure

30. Stimuli for inhibiting the thirst center are produced when fluid intake is greater than fluid output.
a. True b. False

31. Fluid balance is regulated by monitoring blood volume, blood pressure, and blood plasma osmolarity.
a. True b. False

32. This electrolyte imbalance can lead to confusion, coma, paralysis of breathing muscles, and death.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

33. _____________ may cause muscle weakness and irregular heart beat that can lead to cardiac arrest.
a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia

34. Numbness, tingling, increase heat rate, and muscle spasm that can lead to tetany is caused by _____.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

35. If a patient needs IV fluids like 0.9% saline solution it means the solution contains 0.9 gr of _______ to every 100 ml of sterile water.
a. glucose chloride b. calcium chloride c. potassium chloride d. sodium chloride

36. Which of the following individual will be more vulnerable to dehydration?
a. Young adults b. Middle-aged adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. c & d

37. Diabetes insipidus refers to:
a. hypersecretion of insulin b. hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone
c. hyposecretion of insulin d. hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone
e. none of the above

38. During vomiting the major loss is ___________ whereas in diarrhea there is an extensive loss of ________.
a. hydrochloric acid (HCl), bicarbonate (HCO3) b. bicarbonate (HCO3), hydrochloric acid (HCl)
c. bicarbonate (HCO3), glucose d. hydrochloric acid (HCl), sodium

39. Lactic acidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

40. Ketoacidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

41. In respiratory alkalosis, respiratory rate increases and blood __________ _____________.
a. CO2 increases b. CO2 decreases
c. O2 increases d. O2 decreases e. none of the above

42. Metabolic acidosis compensate with _____________ ______________.
a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis e. metabolic alkalosis e. none of the above

43. The step in the digestive process that deals with a series of catabolic steps in which complex food molecules are broken down into their chemical building blocks by enzymes secreted into the lumen of the alimentary tract is called
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

44. ________________ is the passage of digestive end products from the lumen of the GI tract by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph.
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

45. In which part of the digestive tract is chemical digestion essentially completed?
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. small intestine e. large intestine

46. The organ that carries most metabolic function in the body is the
a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. pancreas

47. The main function of these organs is propulsion: peristaltic waves move food bolus to stomach accomplishing the phase of deglutition
a. Mouth and associated accessory organs b. Pharynx and esophagus
c. Stomach d. Small intestine e. Large intestine

48. Which hormone will be secreted especially if the bolus contains proteins?
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

49. The following target organs are stimulated by secretin except:
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. gallbladder

50. The stimulus of chime containing amino acids and fatty acids entering the small intestine releases ____________.
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

51. The cells that produce intrinsic factor, important in the absorption of B12, is the ______ cells.
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

52. The most numerous of the secretory cells within the gastric glands, which produce zymogen are:
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

53. The following are functions of hydrochloric acid except:
a. activates pepsinogen b. kills microorganism
c. prevents ulceration of the stomach d. denatures proteins

54. Barrett esophagus refers to an advance case of GERD in which the epithelium changes from columnar secretory to stratified squamous.
a. True b. False

55. Gastric and duodenal ulcer are both peptic ulcers; the difference is that one occurs in the stomach and the other in the first part of the duodenum respectively.
a. True b. False

56. The following are common complication of advanced liver cirrhosis except:
a. jaundice b. edema c. ascites d. gastritis e. intense itching

57. Most cases of appendicitis occurs because fecal matter obstructs the appendix. As the inflammation worsens the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed as well.
A. True b. False

58. The majority of colorectal cancer appears in the following areas except:
a. descending colon b. sigmoid colon c. rectum d. proximal ileum

59. Polyps are outgrowths from the colon mucosa whereas diverticulosis are bulges in the intestinal lining.
a. True b. False

60. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder. The damage in the small intestine is the smooth muscle which interferes with absorption.
a. True b. False

amaranthfrog191

Exercise Pharmacology

Chapter 1

1. Distinguish between pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and pharmacology.

2. How would you determine a drugâs doseâresponse curve?

3. What is meant by drug efï¬cacy? Potency?

4. How would you determine equipotent doses for two drugs of the same class?

5. What features of a drugâs action may make its pharmacokinetic properties more sensitive to exercise?

6. How might a drugâs volume of distribution be altered in the case of a person who is obese? A person who is elderly?

7. How might you explain an antagonist with partial agonist activity?

8. What are some of the ways that taking a second drug can affect the activity of the ï¬rst drugâor either drug?

Chapter 2

1. Bill is 60 years old and in reasonable shape. Working out on an elliptical machine, Bill sees that his heart rate is 135 bpm. Can you determine his ap-proximate exercise intensity without hooking him to a metabolic cart? What is he primarily burning for energy?

2. Your mother asks your advice about starting an exercise program. She is in pretty good health, but wants to drop some weight besides improving her cardiovascular health. What kind of exercise plan would you recommend to get her started? How would you explain to her the beneï¬ts of such a plan? After the initial couple of weeks, would you recommend any changes that might help her with her long-term ï¬tness goals?

3. Compare and contrast the three major muscle ï¬ber types in terms of their metabolism and fuel preference.

4. You are a graduate student working in an exercise physiology lab. You see a claim in a bodybuilding magazine about a supplement that rapidly increases power, strength, and muscle mass. How would you set up an experiment to test whether these claims are true?

5. Obesity is now considered by some to be reaching epidemic proportions. What is contributing to this trend, and what can be done?

Chapter 3

1. Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

2. What is meant by allostatic load, and how does it differ from stressing over a single test?

3. Explain three ways drugs can affect the signals transmitted by nerve cells.

4. How might exercise lessen the effects of stress?

5. Describe some of the theories that attempt to explain the bodyâs paradoxical response to exercise.

6. What are the key physiological changes that occur during the ï¬ght or ï¬ight response? How do they help in survival?

Chapter 4

1. What is meant by âbeta-blockers with ISAâ? What advantages might these drugs have? Disadvantages?

2. What property makes some beta-blockers cardio selective?

3. What are the effects of beta-blockers on exercise physiology?

4. A serious walker (5 miles/day) notices that she has stopped losing weight since starting her new prescription of propranolol (non-cardio selective, without ISA). She also fatigues more quickly than she used to. What can you offer her as an explanation?

5. The NCAA and USOC have banned beta-blockers from many types of com-petition. Why?

Chapter 5

1. Bill, a deconditioned, recently divorced 50-something exec driving that new BMW, wants to drop some weight and look good. He has high blood pressure. What kind of exercise regime would you recommend?

2. Why do calcium channel blockers mostly affect smooth muscle, with little effect on skeletal muscle?

3. How do calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure?

4. Mary enjoys running and likes to compete in 10K races and half marathons. She also is diagnosed with high blood pressure. What are her options for regulating her blood pressure while maintaining a training schedule and remaining competitive?

5. How do ACE inhibitors affect blood pressure?

6. How do ARBs affect blood pressure?