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raspberrytoad680Lv1

28 Sep 2019

Staphylococcus aureus treated with chloramphenicol has the following values: minimum inhibitory concentration = 3 ?g/ml minimum lethal concentration = 50 ?g/ml Chloramphenicol is acting in a ______ manner against Staphylococcus aureus.

A. bacteriocidal

B. bacteriostatic

C. broad-spectrum

D. resistant

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Keith LeannonLv2

28 Sep 2019

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1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

bronzegoldfish853

1. All of the following characteristics of skin help make it a good defensive barrier against pathogenic microbes EXCEPT:

Springy elasticity

Saltiness due to production of sweat from sweat glands

Acidic pH due to oily compound (sebum) metabolism

Normal microflora of skin

Constant sloughing off of old dead epithelial skin cells

2. The majority of microorganisms comprising the normal microflora inhabiting the skin surface are:

Gram-positive fungi of the single-celled yeasts

Gram-positive bacteria of the Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, Corynebacterium, and Proprionibacterium genera

Gram-negative bacteria of the Enterobacteriaceae family

Gram-negative bacteria of the Neisseria, Pseudomonas, and Salmonella genera

All of the above

3. The pus-producing skin infection (pyoderma) can be caused by:

Staphylococci

Streptococci

Corynebacteria

A combination of staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria

All of these

4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of impetigo?

Common in children

Can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus

Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

Is highly contagious

Can be caused by pseudomonads

5. Which of the following is NOT true about acne?

It is most commonly the result of male sex hormones that stimulate increased sebaceous gland growth and secretion of sebum.

Propionibacterium acnes in particular can turn a mild case of acne into a severe case by causing increased and widespread inflammation, tissue destruction, and scarring.

Common treatments are frequent cleansing of the skin and topical ointments that reduce the risk of infection.

Low doses of oral antibiotics are often prescribed to prevent bacterial infections of lesions and are without side effects.

In most cases, acne disappears or decreases in severity on its own as the body adjusts to the hormonal changes of puberty and sebaceous gland function stabilizes.

6. Which of the following often cause nosocomial infections in burn patients?

Streptococcus pyogenes

Serratia marcescens

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

b and c

7. Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with:

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium perfringenes

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

8. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by:

Chlamydia trachomatis

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

9. Chickenpox is a disease of chickens and is caused by the poxvirus, cowpox is a disease of cattle, and smallpox is a human disease that commonly affects only children. True or false?

10. Antibiotic is used to treat the eyes of newborn infants when:

The mother has gonorrhea

The mother has genital herpes

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the newborn's eyes

Always

The mother has a history of multiple sex partners

11. The virus used to immunize individuals against smallpox causes the disease:

Chickenpox

Measles

Cowpox

Molluscum contagiosum

Warts

12. Which of the following fungal diseases result from an opportunistic fungal infection?

Zygomycoses

Aspergillosis

Candidasis

All of the above

None of the above

13. Rheumatic fever is caused by which organism?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

Streptococcus pyogenes

14. Which of the following components of the respiratory system is normally free of microorganisms?

Lungs

Nasal cavity

Pharynx

Trachea

Bronchi

15. Which of the following is true about diphtheria?

It is caused by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae infected with a prophage that carries an exotoxin-producing gene.

A pseudomembrane composed of Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells, damaged epithelial cells, fibrin, and blood cells forms that can block the airway and cause suffocation.

The exotoxin spreads throughout the body damaging multiple organ system by interfering with cellular protein synthesis.

It can be prevented with DTP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine and treated with both antitoxin and antibiotics.

All of the above are true.

coppertrout695

The most commonly isolated gram-positive cocci are best differentiated by their:

Gram stain morphology.

catalase reaction.

hemolytic reaction.

both a and b.

both b and c.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 1)

The novobiocin resistance test is used to

determine treatment options for Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

identify S. saprophyticus.

differentiate S. saprophyticus and S. hominis ssp. novobiosepticus.

both a and b.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 2)

The slide coagulase and the Staphylococcus latex agglutination tests are similar in that both test for the presence of

protein A.

free coagulase.

clumping factor.

thermonuclease.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 2)

The esculin/PYR disk test can be used to rapidly identify

Enterococcus spp.

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

both a and b.

both a and c.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 2)

The optochin disk test is incubated at/in _____________________.

35Â°C, ambient air.

35Â°C, CO₂.

42Â°C, CO₂.

25Â°C, a capnophilic atmosphere.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 2)

A catalase-positive, gram-positive coccus that agglutinates in a slide coagulase test as well as in saline should be

reported as Staphylococcus aureus.

reported as Staphylococcus not S. aureus.

retested using another method.

retested for the catalase reaction.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objectives 2 and 3)

A positive rapid esculin test appears

dark.

pink.

red after the addition of the reagent.

blue.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 3)

Yellow colonies on mannitol salt agar indicate the definitive presence of

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

Staphylococcus aureus.

Staphylococcus not S. aureus.

unable to definitively identify.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 4)

A catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is bile esculin positive and 6.5% NaCl broth positive belongs to the Lancefield antigenic group

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 5)

10. A leg wound isolate presents as a yellow pigmented, beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following tests would you expect to be positive for this isolate?

Novobiocin resistance

Heat-stable thermonuclease

PYR

b and c

a and b

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 5)

11. A catalase-negative coccus in pairs and short chains that is susceptible to ethyl hydrocupreine will also

a. require CO₂ for growth.

b. be alpha hemolytic.

c. be bile soluble.

d. all of the above.

e. b and c.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 5)

12. The PBP2a latex agglutination test is used to detect catalase-positive, coagulase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are resistant to

a. vancomycin.

b. novobiocin.

c. oxacillin.

d. penicillin.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 6)

13. A catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus in chains that is positive for esculin and PYR hydrolysis is also vancomycin resistant. What additional antibiotic resistance can this organism exhibit?

a. high level aminoglycosides.

b. ampicillin and penicillin.

c. beta-lactamase production.

d. all of the above.

e. b and c.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 6)

14. An alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is susceptible to optochin can cause all of the following diseases except

a. pneumonia.

b. sinusitis.

c. meningitis.

d. pharyngitis.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 7)

15. The catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis

a. has the potential to be vancomycin resistant.

b. hydrolyzes hippurate.

c. is susceptible to bacitracin.

d. is bile soluble.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 7)

16. Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by a

a. catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is susceptible to bacitracin.

b. catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that produces CAMP factor.

c. catalase-positive, gram-positive coccus that produces coagulase.

d. catalase-positive, gram-positive coccus that is resistant to novobiocin.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 7)

17. Infections of indwelling devices, such as intravenous catheters, are often caused by catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are

a. coagulase positive and thermonuclease negative.

b. coagulase negative and novobiocin resistant.

c. caogulase positive and thermonuclease positive.

d. coagulase negative and novobiocin susceptible.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 7)

18. Which of the following factors accounts for the virulence of Streptococcus pyogenes?

a. âCâ substance

b. Protein A

c. M protein

d. mecA gene

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 7)

19. The virulence factor most often associated with catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci that are bile soluble is

a. capsule production.

b. vancomycin resistance.

c. hyaluronidase.

d. streptolysin S.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 7)

20. A catalase-negative, alpha-hemolytic, gram-positive coccus that is resistant to ethyl hydrocupriene is usually considered

a. a member of the normal upper respiratory flora.

b. a pathogen in an expectorated sputum specimen.

c. the causative agent of non-suppurative sequelae.

d. a common urinary pathogen.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 8)

21. A catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive coccus in clusters is isolated from the urine of a 24-year-old female. This isolate will require

a. additional testing to identify.

b. no further testing.

c. a screen for vancomycin resistance.

d. Lancefield grouping.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 10)

22. A blood culture yields yellow-pigmented, beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters. The department is out of Staphylococcus latex agglutination reagent. The microbiologist sets up a tube coagulase and mannitol salt agar. She incubates both at 35Â°C in CO₂ overnight. The next day the coagulase test is negative and the mannitol salt agar displays yellow colonies. How will you proceed with these results?

a. Report this organism as Staphylococcus aureus

b. Report this organism as Staphylococcus not S. aureus

c. Repeat the tests due to invalid results

d. Test the organism for novobiocin resistance

ANSWER:

(Level 3, Objective 10)

24. A patient, suspected to have bacterial endocarditis, had two sets of blood cultures drawn. All four bottles are positive with gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains. On sheep blood agar, the gray, transparent, alpha-hemolytic colonies are catalase negative, optochin resistant, ESC negative and PYR negative. Which of the following patient histories correlates with the presence of this organism?

a. 78-year-old male with bacterial pneumonia

b. 47-year-old female with a heart murmur and a history of dental surgery

c. 16-year-old female with a history of untreated pharyngitis

d. 3-day-old premature male

ANSWER:

(Level 3, Objective 10)

25. A translucent colony displaying subtle beta hemolysis is isolated from a placenta culture. The Gram stain revealed gram-positive cocci in pairs. The microbiologist drops 3% catalase reagent onto a colony on sheep blood agar, and it produces bubbles. He then performs a Staphyloccocus latex agglutination and the suspension remains smooth. The next step is to

a. report the organism as Staphylococcus not S. aureus.

b. report the organism as Staphylococcus aureus.

c. repeat the catalase test due to an invalid result.

d. perform a thermonuclease test due to an invalid latex agglutination result.

ANSWER:

(Level 3, Objective 10)