BIO 198 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Wild Type, Allele Frequency, Intron

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lavendergiraffe572

4 Sep 2016

School

University of Rochester

Department

Biology

Course

BIO 198

Professor

Elaine Sia

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Document Summary

Homework #1, 5, 6, 13, 15, 16, 17, 22. Dna helix, chargaff"s rules about base pairs (matching, complementary base pairing) Rna is very similar to dna and have very minor differences in base pairs. Open dna helix, can transcribe to rna sequence, there are differences in translation in eukaryotic cells and in bacteria, removal of introns can modify the sequence and the protein made. Different versions of the protein translated from differently spliced rna sequence. Big a and little a: same gene but a little different; both big a and little a are the same gene but big a is a different allele from little a (difference between a gene and an allele). Can have different versions/alleles of the same gene that is on the same place of a chromosome. *recessive mutations are most common because it is easier to break something than to make it do the right thing.

Related Questions

You decide to identify the CFTR mutation by analyzing the genomic DNA of your patients compared to healthy individuals. You specifically are looking to see whether a specific 3' gene truncation has occurred in the patients. You will determine this using hybridization techniques with samples from healthy and CF patients. Which of the following will allow you to accomplish this?

	Using an RNA probe complementary to the region not removed by the truncation.
	Using an RNA probe complementary to the region removed by the truncation.
	Using an DNA probe complementary to the region not removed by the truncation.
	Using an DNA probe complementary to the region removed by the truncation.

To conduct the hybridization experiment, you are trying to decide between using a DNA or RNA probe. Which would be ideal to use and why?

	As both are composed of nucleic acids, using either would result in identical results.
	An RNA probe because RNA has uracil bases.
	An RNA probe because it could also be used in a translation experiment.
	A DNA probe because it is more stable than RNA.
	A DNA probe because RNA cannot bind to DNA.

Imagine Hershey/Chase had used an RNA virus (genome composed of RNA) instead of a DNA virus in their experiment. Would radioactivity still have been found in the pellet?

	No, because only DNA can be labeled with radioactivity.
	No, because the RNA genome would not enter the bacteria upon infection.
	No, because while DNA and RNA nucleotides are similar, they are not identical.
	Yes, because DNA and RNA nucleotides are similar.
	Yes, because genome in any form (DNA, RNA, protein) would be labeled similarly.

The human genome consists mostly of non-coding DNA. Which of the following are benefits of this?

	Random DNA mutations generally won't affect RNA and protein function.
	It is faster to duplicate the genome when these are present.
	The existence of introns can lead to multiple variations of proteins encoded by a single gene.
	It is unlikely transposons would exist in the genome if there was too much protein coding DNA.

You accidentally add a mutant dNTP (which has an H instead of an OH connected to the 3â carbon) to a reaction where DNA is being replicated. Which of the following is true of this mutant dNTP?

	It can be incorporated into DNA strand but cannot form a phosphodiester bond with an incoming wild type dNTP
	It can be incorporated into a DNA strand but cannot base pair with a complementary nucleotide
	It can be incorporated into a DNA strand and can form a phosphodiester bond with an incoming dNTP, but only if it is another mutant dNTP
	It cannot be incorporated into a DNA strand.

Andrew Murray's sister, Andrea, is adding to her brother's work on chromosomes. She is using cells that are unable to synthesize adenine (âade) and histidine (âhis). The plasmid she is currently working with consists of an origin of replication and the Ade gene.

Following her transformation of the plasmid into her yeast, what media will the cells be plated on to select for cells that have picked up the plasmid?

	Media containing histidine
	Media containing adenine
	Media lacking adenine
	Media lacking histidine

She starts by attempting to add the centromere DNA into a plasmid containing the origin of replication. Unfortunately, when adding the centromere sequence, the origin of replication is removed, thus leaving a plasmid with only a centromere and selection marker. Following plasmid transformation, what growth result will she see on her plates?

	No colonies
	Little colonies
	Big colonies

She fixes the mistakes from the previous experiment and now has a complete plasmid (selection marker, origin of replication, centromere). She then inserts telomere sequences into the plasmid. How will this impact her transformation?

	It will not impact her transformation
	Her transformation will no longer work because plasmids donât require telomeres
	She will now see much larger colonies
	She will now see fewer but larger colonies
	She will now see smaller colonies

In the Meselson/Stahl experiment, E. coli were first grown in media containing heavy nitrogen, 15N, and then transferred to light nitrogen, 14N, at the beginning of the experiment.

Imagine that their data showed that replication occurs in a conservative manner instead of semi-conservative. What fraction of the DNA helices will consist of mixed DNA after 4 rounds of replication in this case?

	None
	More than 75%
	25-50%
	51-75%
	Less than 25%

peachmarten804

In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

13. The arms of a human and the wing of a bat are _________________ structures, composed of the same bones that have been modified for different functions.

analogous

vestigial

c.	homologous

d.	convergent

14. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. People who are homozygous for the disease-causing allele have skin that is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet radiation; this can lead to skin cancer at an early age. The mutation that causes this disorder is in a gene that functions:

a.	to repair DNA by excising (removing) nucleotides damaged by UV light.

b.	in lysosomes, to break down lipids that otherwise accumulate in the nervous system.

c.	to produce the UV blocking pigment melanin in the skin cells

d.	in red blood cells to carry oxygen to the skin.

15. The Amish are a religious sect descended from a small group of colonists who came to the United States over 200 years ago. Their religious beliefs have kept them isolated from society. The Amish have a much higher than average incidence of both polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) and dwarfism in their communities. This is most likely explained by:

a.	inheritance of acquired characters.

b.	the founder effect.

c.	disruptive selection.

d.	natural selection.

16. In the structure of DNA that Watson and Crick proposed, the sides of the "ladder" of the DNA molecule are always the same distance apart, making the molecule a constant width. This occurs because when the bases hydrogen bond to form the rungs of the "ladder", a:

a.	purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.

b.	purine always pairs with a purine.

c.	pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrmidine.

d.	The structure of the double helix is not determined by how the bases pair.

17. The RNA transcript of DNA that travels to the cytoplasm, carrying the instructions to make a protein, is called:

rRNA.

tRNA.

mRNA.

d.	RNA polymerase.

18. When DNA is replicated, the error rate is approximately one error for every 10,000 nucleotides copied. However, that error rate is reduced to only 1 error for every 1 billion nucleotides. The DNA sequence is "corrected" by:

a.	repeating S phase to see if the error rate is lower the second time around.

b.	enzymes that proofread the DNA and repair errors.

c.	messenger RNA during the process of transcription.

d.	Any errors made during DNA replication cannot be corrected. If errors are detected after S phase, the cell is destroyed.

19. Mendel's principle of segregation says that:

a.	when gametes are formed, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular gene.

b.	some genes are dominant to others.

c.	a testcross must be used to determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.

d.	all of the above

20. Tay-Sachs disease is lethal before reproductive age, but the allele persists in Louisiana French Canadians because:

a.	it is a dominant allele.

b.	new mutations causing this disease are common in that population.

c.	it is not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.

d.	the disease is contagious and can be transmitted by nonheritable means.

21. Physical features that are similar in organisms which are not closely related to each other are most likely a result of ____________. A good example of this is the similarities seen between some marsupial and placental mammals.

a.	natural selection.

b.	adaptation to similar environments

c.	convergent evolution

d.	All of the above phrases can be used to correctly fill this blank.

22. In humans, which of the following sex chromosome compliments could be found in males?

23. The proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes:

a.	help to package the DNA within the nucleus.

b.	are involved in gene expression, through binding with the DNA.

c.	may be replicating or transcribing the DNA.

d.	All of these are true of proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes.

24. A sequence of DNA nucleotides that contains the information to produce a single protein is a(n):

codon.

gene.

c.	polypeptide.

d.	anticodon.

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BIO 198 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Wild Type, Allele Frequency, Intron

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