EC140 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Consumption Function

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Chapter 22 adds trade and government to the simple model. Governments have two functions in the model: governments spend money. Purchase goods and services, g this is assumed to be autonomous with respect to income. Net tax revenues are taxes collected transfer payments. Constant net tax rate in the model t = ty. If t-g > 0, we have a surplus. If t-g < 0, we have a deficit. Federal structure in canada implies multiple levels of. Model assumes all levels of government included in t and g. Exports are determined by foreign households and firms: exports, x, are autonomous with respect to canadian income. X = x0: imports are determined by canadian spending decisions. As income rises, total imports will rise. Im = my: net exports are exports imports or: Net exports: exports are autonomous, imports increase with income, net exports are exports imports, net exports fall as income increases.

Related Questions

The Modified Keynesian Model

Y = C + I + G + X â IM â¦ equilibrium condition in a 4-sector model where:

C = 150 + 0.9DI â¦ consumption function

I = 50 â¦ autonomous investment

G = 100 â¦ autonomous government spending

X = 200 â¦ autonomous exports

IM = 100 â¦ autonomous imports

And also:

DI = Y â T + Tr T = 0 â¦ autonomous taxes

Tr = 0 â¦ autonomous transfer payments

YF = 5000 â¦ full-employment Y

1. Solve for the equilibrium level of real output/income (Y*) in this economy.

2. Given the model above, net exports equal $________. Does this represent a trade deficit or trade surplus?

3. Given the model above, the federal budget has a (deficit/surplus) equal to $________.

4. What is the value of the MPC? â¦ the value of the MPS?

5. Calculate the âoversimplifiedâ expenditure multiplier.

6. Suppose that full-employment (YF) equals $5000. Is there a recessionary or inflationary output gap?

7. (Refer to question â6â.) How much is the gap equal to?

8. Suppose the government chooses to eliminate the gap by using expansionary fiscal policy (i.e., increasing G). Given the numbers above, by how much would government spending (G) need to increase to achieve the goal of full-employment?

9. Suppose instead that the government decided to lower taxes to eliminate the output gap in question â6â. How much would taxes need to fall to achieve the goal of full-employment?

10. Which action (raising G or lowering T) has the largest effect on the federal budget deficit and the national debt?

11. Suppose the national debt equaled $6000 before the tax cut (refer to question â9â). What would be the value of the national debt after this policy action?

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41.Which of the following is a valid statement about the Keynesian and classical models of the macroeconomy?

A. Fiscal policy will affect output in the Keynesian model, but only the price level in the classical model.

B. The economy adapts quickly to demand shocks under the Keynesian model, but not under the classical model.

C. A sharp decrease in the value of a nation's currency will lead to higher price levels in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

D. Increases in autonomous expenditure will increase aggregate demand in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

E. An increase in the productive capacity of an economy will result in greater output in both the Keynesian and classical models.

42. Suppose the government spends $500M on a project that has absolutely no value to the country. Which statement about this project is correct?

A. If taxes were raised $500M to fund this project, the Keynesian model predicts that this will have no net effect on output in the economy.

B. If the government raised the money for this project by printing $500M in bonds and selling them to the Fed, the effect is exactly the same as if they sold the bonds to households.

C. The project will increase aggregate supply because it will increase the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy.

D. If the marginal propensity to save in the economy is equal to 0.25, the Keynesian model predicts that this project will result in a $2000M increase in GDP.

E. Under the assumptions of the classical model, the result of this project will be increased in both the price level and equilibrium GDP.

43. A particular economy has a consumption of $400M, a government deficit of $100M, taxes of $250M, and income of $800M. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If the investment is zero, there is no foreign trade imbalance.

B. If the trade surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

C. If the capital account surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

D. If the trade surplus is $100M, there will be an investment.

E. None of the above statements is necessarily true.

44. Which piece of information would be least useful in trying to predict the effect of a $700M increase in government spending on equilibrium GDP?

A. marginal propensity to save

B. The slope of the aggregate supply curve

C. Whether taxes are raised to pay for the spending increase

D. The current level of structural unemployment

E. Whether the bonds used to finance the spending were sold to households or to the Fed

45.Which of the statements relating to full employment and full capacity is false?

A. At full employment there is no frictional unemployment; at full capacity, there is no structural unemployment.

B. The full-employment level of output is less than the full capacity level of output.

C. At full employment there is no cyclical unemployment; at full capacity, there is no frictional unemployment.

D. A government spending increase will result in increased output and price levels at full employment, but only increased price levels at full capacity.

E. In the long run, an economy that starts at full capacity will move to full employment.

46. What would be the effect of a law requiring that government spending equal tax revenues in each year?

A. Fiscal policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

B. Monetary policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

C. Fluctuations in GDP would become less severe.

D. The government spending multiplier would be effectively set to 1.0.

E. The marginal propensity to consume would be cut in half.

47.The total value of T-bonds, including T-notes and T-bills, in existence at any point in time, is:

A. The federal government spending deficit.

B. The trade deficit.

C. Less than government spending.

D. Necessarily less than GDP.

E. The national debt.

48. Which of the following would be a valid statement about a government plan to eliminate a trade deficit

A. A decrease in the trade deficit will decrease investment in the country.

B. An effective strategy would be to increase the money supply and increase the value of the national currency.

C. An effective strategy would be to increase interest rates and increase the value of the national currency.

D. This could be achieved through dramatically increasing aggregate supply.

E. The increase in net exports will result in a decrease in aggregate demand.

49. Crowding out has the effect(s) of:

A. Reducing the effectiveness of monetary policy if crowding out occurs in financial markets.

B. Decreasing the value of a nationâs currency if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

C. Increasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and increasing the effectiveness of monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

D. Decreasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and decreasing the effectiveness of both fiscal and monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

E. Increasing the price of government bonds if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

50. Which of the following will make crowding out in credit markets more severe?

A. A steep investment demand curve

B. A global credit market

C. Tax increases

D. A steep supply curve in the loanable funds market

E. None of the above

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TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

EC140 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Consumption Function

EC140 Full Course Notes

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