BIO 2135 Study Guide - Final Guide: Ordovician, Proventriculus, Monophyly

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12 Apr 2015

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Anapsids, bird that forms a connection between the lungs and bone cavities and aids in breathing and temperature regulation: the air sacs expand and contract in birds rather than the lungs, one of the extraembryonic membranes found in the amniote animals, the allantois contains the metabolic wastes created by the developing embryo, may also be involved in gas exchange and is important in forming the placenta in placental mammals, one of the extraembryonic membranes found in terrestrial vertebrate, the amnion is filled with fluid and the developing embryo of reptiles, birds, and mammals develops suspended inside the amnion, eggs that shelter the developing embryo in a water filled sac the amnion. This is a characteristic of the amniote animals, which include reptiles, birds, and mammals: the type of skull found in reptiles and seen today only in turtles, behind the opening of the orbits the skull is solid and lacks temporal openings found in other amniote.

Related Questions

1. Which of the following are considered blood vessels within the cardiovascular system? (Select all that apply.)

Veins

Arteries \

Epithelial tissue

Capillaries

Epidermis

2. The middle muscle layer found in the walls of the heart is the __________.

Myocardium

Epicardium

Endocardium

Aorta

3. Blood is transported throughout the body via ___________.

Veins
Arteries

Capillaries

All of the above

4. The right atrium receives blood from all parts of the body except the ______________.

Abdominal cavity

Lungs

Dorsal cavity

Cranium

5. Blood carries which of the following?

Oxygen and cellular waste

Oxygen, nutrients, hormones, enzymes, and cellular waste

Nutrients, hormones, enzymes

Oxygen, nutrients, enzymes

6. Vocal chords are found in the ____________.

Bronchus

Trachea

Larynx and Pharynx

Nasal cavity

7. The trachea is mostly lined by ________________.

Alveoli

Ciliated

mucous membrane

Lung capillaries
Vocal chords

8. Excess CO2 from the body is __________________.

Stored in the pancreas

Digested by cells

Excreted by the respiration process

Used to make ATP

9. CO2 from the body is released into the lungs via _________________.

Ciliated mucous membrane

Alveolar air

Nasal cavity

Bronchial tree

10. The principal function(s) of gas exchange is ____________________.

To supply cells with oxygen

To remove CO2 from the body

Both A and B

Neither of the above

One of the most common chronic conditions affecting the respiratory system is asthma. Asthma is a condition characterized by inflammation of the airways. When an asthma attack is triggered, the airways become even more inflamed and can restrict breathing. Common symptoms during an asthma attacks include coughing, wheezing, tightness in the chest and shortness of breath. Severe asthma attacks can be fatal. People with a family history of asthma are more likely to have the condition. While there is no cure for asthma, proper medical care and a management plan can help to maintain quality of life for people living with asthma. There are different types of asthma, each with their own triggers and management plans. Type Description Exercise-induced Bronchoconstriction (EIB), or Exercise-induced Asthma (EIA) Some people only experience asthma symptoms during exercise. Exercise-induced asthma causes the narrowing of airways during exercise, which restricts the flow of air to and from the lungs. Cold, dry air tends to exacerbate symptoms, while warm, humid air may reduce symptoms. People with exercise-induced asthma should work with their doctor to create a management plan that still allows them to exercise while keeping their symptoms under control. Allergic Asthma Allergic asthma is the most common form of asthma. It is triggered by inhaling allergen particulates, such as dust mites, pollen, pet dander, or mold. The bodyâs reaction to the allergens causes inflammation that results in coughing, wheezing, and other symptoms of asthma. Occupational Asthma Occupational asthma is caused by the frequent inhalation (breathing) of gases, fumes, dust, or other harmful substances in the workplace. Employees working in the chemical or petroleum industries are frequently exposed to chemicals such as Sulphur dioxide or hydrochloric acid, and may develop occupational asthma after prolonged exposure. Childhood Asthma Childhood asthma is usually developed before age 5. It is a condition that affects millions of children. It is vital that childhood asthma is properly controlled to prevent damage to the developing lungs Risk factors: â¢ Allergies â¢ Family history â¢ Frequent respiratory infections â¢ Low birth-weight â¢ Second-hand smoke â¢ Residing in a low-income, urban environment

Asthma symptoms that are triggered by exposure to pollen, pet dander, mold, or dust mites is indicative of which of the following types of asthma:

Occupational asthma

Childhood asthma

Allergic asthma

Exercise-induced asthma

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Question 1 An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number? A It cannot be determined. B 19 C 45 D 64 Question 2 The square above is based on the eye color of two parents, one of whom has brown eyes and carries the recessive gene for green eyes (a). What is the probability that a biological child of these parents will have brown eyes? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100% The spleen functions are part of the _____ system. Which of the following completes the sentence above? A digestive B lymphatic C endocrine D circulatory Question 4 Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning? A Only 21% of a townâs population have expressed a desire to ban all cars. Therefore, the new proposition banning cars in the state is not likely to pass. B People who brush their teeth regularly have fewer instances of heart disease. Therefore, good dentistry can prevent heart attacks. C All soccer players who play professionally can kick well. Therefore, any future soccer player who is recruited to play professionally will be able to kick well. D All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist. Question 5 Which of the following is a possible cause of herniation of discs? A hepatitis B whiplash C plantar fasciitis D ulcer Question 6 Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system? A It regulates the voluntary control of body movements through the skeletal muscles. B It is the part of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord. C It regulates involuntary activity in the heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines. D It is thought to be the center of intelligence. Question 7 During photosynthesis, which two compounds are combined to create the output of glucose and oxygen? A Carbon dioxide and water. B Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate. C Bicarbonate and water. D Carbon dioxide and multiple alkaline substances. Question 8 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which of the following is true about the frog? A It is a member of the salamandridae family. B It is a type of amphibian. C It is a non-vertebrate. D It is closer to most tetrapods than to most newts. Question 9 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which statement can be inferred about amphibians? A All amphibians are salamandridae, but not all salamandridae are amphibians. B Some amphibians are vertebrates, but not all amphibians are vertebrates. C Some salamandridae are amphibians, but not all amphibians are tetrapods. D All amphibians are vertebrates, but not all vertebrates are amphibians. Question 10 What would this diagram be useful for? A determining outcomes for potential infection B diagnosing an infectious disease C controlling the spread of disease in undeveloped countries D training nurses to detect early onset symptoms of disease Question 11 What type of bond between the complementary bases of DNA stabilizes the double helix structure? A covalent B ionic C hydrogen D nuclear Question 12 Which of the following subatomic particles are found inside of an atomâs nucleus? A electrons, neutrons, protons B neutrons, protons C electrons, protons D electrons Question 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding trophic levels? A Tertiary consumers acquire more energy content than secondary consumers. B Producers acquire less energy than primary consumers. C Secondary consumers acquire more energy than primary consumers. D Tertiary consumers acquire less energy than primary consumers. Question 14 Why does the human eye perceive a red colored dress as the color red? A The molecules of the dress do not absorb red light wavelengths. B The molecules of the dress absorb green and blue light wavelengths. C A red dress will primarily absorb red light wavelengths. D A red dress will not absorb light wavelengths from non-red colors. Question 15 In a lab experiment designed to test the rate at which plants grow under artificial light, the kind of light used is which type of variable? A dependent B independent C random D responding Question 16 Which organ system is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism, mood, and growth? A respiratory system B digestive system C endocrine system D lymphatic system Question 17 In a vacuum, why doesnât an elephant accelerate faster than a penny as it falls to the ground? A Vector components of an elephant are more complex than those of a penny. B An elephant is not a projectile, while a penny is. C They both have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. D The elephant is greater in mass but is slowed less by the effects of air resistance. Question 18 Which train described below would have the greatest momentum? A A 9500 kg train car moving at 200 mph B An 8000 kg train car moving at 215 mph C A 9300 kg train car moving at 190 mph D A 8600 kg train car mobbing at 195 mph Question 19 A scientist found that when an invasive species was introduced into a river, the population of salmon native to the region decreased. The type of correlation between these two populations could best be described as A a direct relationship. B an inverse relationship. C a direct and indirect relationship. D no decisive relationship. Question 20 The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will have what effect? A Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place. B Increase the time required for the reaction to take place. C Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. D Reduce the amount of products in the reaction. Question 21 The pharynx is part of what body system? A respiratory B muscular C lymphatic D circulatory Question 22 Which of the following is true about eukaryotic cells? A They do not contain lysosomes. B They contain one chromosome. C They do not contain a nucleus. D They contain mitochondria. Question 23 What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope? A Number of protons. B Number of neutrons. C Number of electrons. D Number of quarks. Question 24 What is NOT true about RNA? A It contains a sugar called ribose. B Thymine is not one of its base pairings. C It is unstable in alkaline conditions. D Its sugar is more reduced than DNAâs sugar. Question 25 Which of the following scenarios would NOT give a normal distribution? A A distribution of the yearly income of families in the U.S. B The distribution of heights in a large sample of people. C The percentage of toxic wastes and pollution in the atmosphere vs. the lifespan of organisms in the location. D A curve with 97% of the population within the first two standard deviations. Question 26 In a cell, the Golgi apparatus is found in what location? A Inside the nucleus B Inside the mitochondria C In the cell wall D In the cytoplasm Question 27 Which taxonomic rank is the next-smallest after Order? A Phylum B Family C Species D Genus Question 28 In plants, ________ involves the formation of a _____? A cytokinesis, cleavage furrow B telophase, cell plate C cytokinesis, cell plate D prophase, DNA Question 29 Which base is NOT found in DNA? A guanine B cytosine C uracil D adenine Question 30 Which of the following layers of the atmosphere is the closest to space? A troposphere B stratosphere C mesosphere D thermosphere Question 31 Which is NOT one of the four basic types of tissue? A parenchyma B epithelial C nervous D connective Question 32 The stomach is _____ to the small intestine. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above? A lateral B superior C posterior D proximal Question 33 Which of the following is the atomic mass of an atom containing 42 protons, 42 electrons, and 37 neutrons? A 42 B 79 C 84 D 121 Question 34 A patient who has suffered head trauma is not able to recognize people he has met around an hour earlier but is still able to recognize people he met before the injury. He most likely has damage to the: A Medulla Oblongata B Corpus Callosum C Hippocampus D Pituitary Gland Question 35 What process is illustrated in the diagram above? A meiosis B mitosis C replication D codification Question 36 Of the following, which is not a type of chemical bond? A ionic B covalent C polar D magnetic Question 37 If the amount of hydrogen in a balloon of fixed size is doubled, what happens to the mass and density of the balloon? A The mass and density both decrease. B The mass increases, but the density decreases. C The mass decreases, but the density increases. D The mass and density both increase. Question 38 If you have 200 mL of a 60% sodium chloride solution, how much NaCl is dissolved in the solution? A 20 g B 50 g C 80 g D 120 g Question 39 How many carbon dioxide molecules are required to balance the following reaction: 4C6H12O6 + 24O2 â _CO2 + 24H2O + Energy A 4 B 8 C 16 D 24 Question 40 The graph above records the death rate of two types of male flies a certain number of days after a chemical pesticide is sprayed. What is the probability a male methuselah fly will be alive 75 days after exposure to the pesticide? A 1/2 B 1/3 C 1/4 D 1/5 Question 41 A scientist wants to write an equation using the variables X, Y, and Z. What is the proper relationship between the variables if X represents time, Y represents energy, and Z represents power? A 2XY = Z B XZ = 2Y C Z = X/Y D Z = Y/X Question 42 What type of correlation is presented between price and quality? A strong direct correlation B weak direct correlation C strong indirect correlation D no correlation Question 43 What type of cells result from mitosis? A one diploid cell B two haploid cells C two diploid cells D four haploid cells Question 44 Cheetahs, rainbow trout, and inchworms belong to the same A Kingdom B Phylum C Class D Order Question 45 The presence of which hormone would NOT cause an increase in water retention? A Renin B ANP C ADH D Aldosterone Question 46 In which part of the heart does oxygenated blood flow out of? A Right ventricle B Left ventricle C Right atrium D Left atrium Question 47 Which of the following hormones are secreted directly by the hypothalamus? A melatonin B oxytocin C dopamine D calcitonin Question 48 Which of the following terms do these diagrams NOT portray? A Active transport B Facilitated Transport C Antiporter D Ion Channel

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Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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BIO 2135 Study Guide - Final Guide: Ordovician, Proventriculus, Monophyly

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