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itsshubh

itsshubh

Lv3

Shubham Pandey

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History4Law2Management2English1Mechanical Engineering1Computer Science18Calculus2Biology10Mathematics2Physics1

4) Which of the following examples of how the process of eukaryotic transcription differs from the process of bacterial transcription is/are true?

A- Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic RNA polymerase can initiate transcription with the help of sigma factor where no additional proteins are needed
B- Bacterial cells contain a single RNA Polymerase known as mRNA, whereas eukaryotic cells have three RNA polymerases known as mRNA, tRNA and rRNA.
C- In eukaryotic cells, transcription regulators can influence transcriptional initiation thousands of nucleotides away from the promoter, whereas bacterial regulatory sequences are very close to the promoter.
D- Prokaryotic transcription is affected by chromatin structure and nucleosomes, whereas Eukaryotic are not.
E- All of the above are correct
F- Only A and B correct
G- Only B and C correct
H- None of the above is correct

6) You have a segment of DNA from bacteria that contains the following sequence (Check images file HW7 Q6 figure). Which of the following choices best describes how transcription occurs if you were told that the top strand is the template strand?

A. The RNA polymerase moves along the top strand from 5 to 3.
B. The RNA polymerase moves along the bottom strand from 3 to 5.
C. The RNA polymerase moves along the bottom strand from 5 to 3.
D. The RNA polymerase moves along the top strand from 3 to 5.
E. The RNA polymerase moves along the newly synthesized strand from 3 to 5.
F. Information is not enough to make a conclusion.

7) Using the same DNA sequence in question #6 above, write the down the RNA transcript if you learned that the top strand was your genic strand, assuming that the promotor sequence is in place and that the first nucleotide represent the start of the coding sequence. (clearly

label the 5 and 3 end following the same format in the figure. DO NOT INCLUDE ANY SPACE at the beginning or at the end of your answer, or between nucleotides. Do NOT add any comma)

9) Transcription in bacteria differs from transcription in a eukaryotic cell because...

A. RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) requires the general transcription factors to assemble at the promoter before polymerase can begin transcription.
B. RNA polymerase does not need to be phosphorylated at its C-terminal tail for transcription to proceed.
C. RNA polymerase (along with its sigma subunit) can not initiate transcription on its own.
D. the sigma subunit must associate with the appropriate type of RNA polymerase to produce mRNAs.

10) Total nucleic acids are extracted from a culture of yeast cells and are then mixed with resin beads to which the polynucleotide 5-TTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT-3 has been

covalently attached. After a short incubation, the beads are then extracted from the mixture. When you analyze the cellular nucleic acids that have stuck to the beads, which of the following is most abundant?

DNA
rRNA
tRNA
mRNA
Answer: Option A is correct for question 6. During transcription, the RNA poly...
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Answer: The correct statement is: DNA Polymerase III is the main polymerase of...
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Answer:(c) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history...
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1) A taxon is usually a group that includes a single common ancestor and all of its descendants. Most taxa, therefore, are called _____ groups.

A non-monophyletic
B monophyletic
C basal
D unevolved

2) In a phylogenetic tree, a node or branching point represents ___.

A the amount of genetic difference between species
B the fossil species
C a splitting of one lineage into two lineages (i.e., a speciation event)

3) Which popular taxon includes all scaled land vertebrates but is not monophyletic because birds, the descendants of some reptiles are not included in the group?

A ostriches
B amphibians
C pigeons
D mammals
E reptiles

4) A phylogenetic tree is a _________.

A detailed timeline of a species' evolutionary history
B hypothesis about the evolutionary history of a species
C factual representation of the evolutionary history of a species
D a reconstruction of time based upon the geologic record

5) A scientific ______ is an explanation supported by a large body of observations and experimentation.

A theory
B confusion
C hypothesis
D observation
Answer: The correct answer is B: monophyletic. The correct answer is C: a spli...
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Answer: c
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1. All of the following are emerging infectious diseases, except:

A.

HIV/AIDS

B.

SARS

C.

Nipah virus

D.

Hepatitis B

QUESTION 2

As a country becomes healthier, what is most likely to happen regarding childhood mortality?


A.

Neonatal mortality decreases while under-5 mortality remains the same

B.

Neonatal deaths account for a larger share of under-5 mortality

C.

Both neonatal mortality and under-5 mortality remain the same

D.

Neonatal deaths account for a smaller share of under-5 mortality

QUESTION 3

Early adolescence is defined as the period between:


A.

Ages 9 and 11

B.

Ages 9 and 16

C.

ages 10 and 12

D.

Ages 10 and 14

QUESTION 4

Key factors contributing to the emergence and re-emergence of infectious diseases include:


A.

War and famine

B.

Microbial adaptation and change

C.

Breakdown of public health measures

D.

All of these are correct.

QUESTION 5

Of the leading causes of DALYs for adolescents aged 10–14 years, which is not a leading cause for adolescents aged 15–19 years?


A.

Asthma

B.

Diarrheal disease

C.

Road injury

D.

Diarrheal disease and road injury

QUESTION 6

Reducing the incidence of a disease in a specific area to zero is termed:


A.

Elimination

B.

Control

C.

Eradication

D.

Extinction

QUESTION 7

What are common mental health problems among adolescents?


A.

Conduct disorders

B.

Anxiety

C.

Depression

D.

All of these are correct.

QUESTION 8

What causes the most neonatal deaths globally?


A.

Preterm birth complications

B.

Malaria

C.

Sepsis

D.

Pneumonia

QUESTION 9

What is not a consequence or complication of vitamin A deficiency?


A.

Asphyxia

B.

Xerophthalmia

C.

Immune system compromise

D.

Measles

QUESTION 10

What is not a leading cause of death among adolescents in high-income countries?


A.

Self-harm

B.

Lower respiratory infections

C.

Road injury

D.

Interpersonal violence




QUESTION 11

What is the most cost-effective intervention in low-resource settings to treat diarrhea and prevent its complications and mortality?


A.

Consumption of large quantities of water

B.

Oral rehydration therapy

C.

Antibiotic treatment

D.

Intravenous fluid administration




QUESTION 12

Which WHO region has the highest percentage of adolescents who are current drinkers?


A.

Africa

B.

Western Pacific

C.

Europe

D.

South-East Asia

QUESTION 13

Which intervention is the most appropriate, cost-effective measure for caring for stable, low birthweight infants in very resource-limited settings?


A.

Kangaroo mother care

B.

Neonatal incubator

C.

Feeding through a nasogastric tube

D.

None of these are correct.




QUESTION 14

Which of the following statements about HIV/AID is false?


A.

New HIV infections occur predominantly in people ages 15–24.

B.

Circumcised males are less likely to be infected with HIV than uncircumcised males.

C.

Cambodia faces a generalized epidemic of HIV/AIDS.

D.

The highest rates of prevalence are in Central, Eastern, and Southern Africa.




QUESTION 15

Which region has seen the largest percentage decline in under-5 mortality since 1990?


A.

Sub-Saharan Africa

B.

Latin America and the Caribbean

C.

South Asia

D.

Middle East and North Africa

QUESTION 16

Which statement about the burden of childhood illness in the under-5 age group is true?


A.

South Asia has the highest rates of under-5 mortality.

B.

Almost half of the under-5 mortality occurs in only four large countries.

C.

About 80% of the under-5 deaths occur among neonates.

D.

The rate of under-5 mortality in sub-Saharan Africa is about 25 times that in high-income countries.




QUESTION 17

Which statement about the prevention and treatment of HIV/AIDS is true?


A.

One cost-effective measure to reduce maternal-to-child transmission of HIV is to avoid unwanted pregnancies of HIV

-positive women through contraception.

B.

It is no longer necessary to screen voluntary blood donors for HIV/AIDS because the storage process kills the virus in

the blood.

C.

People with HIV are started on treatment when their CD4 count drops to 200, according to the latest WHO guidelines

.

D.

Needle exchange programs for injecting drug users have not shown much success in reducing the incidence of HIV

infection.




QUESTION 18

Which statement about the prevention and treatment of TB is false?


A.

DOTS is a cost-effective approach to TB treatment.

B.

WHO recommends starting antiretroviral therapy for anyone who is HIV-positive who has TB.

C.

Any responsible individual can be a DOTS provider.

D.

The BCG vaccine is important in reducing the transmission of TB.

QUESTION 19

Anxiety disorders are a leading cause of DALYs among:


A.

Females, ages 10–14

B.

Males, ages 10–14

C.

Males, ages 15–19

D.

Females, ages 15–19




QUESTION 20

Case fatality rate is:


A.

The proportion of people exposed to a disease that contract the disease

B.

The proportion of people with a disease that die

C.

The proportion of people with a disease that die from the disease

D.

The proportion of people infected with a disease that survive the disease
Answer: D. Hepatitis B is not an emerging infectious disease. D. Neonatal deat...
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61. The phase of the growth curve where industries get the most out of their
product is the _____________ and where the bacterial growth ceases is ___________.
62. In phase __________ the bacterial population remains relatively constant and the curve runs parallel to the abscissa.
63. In the __________ phase growth is exponential and continuous forming an ascending line.
64. Cells begin to die in the ________ or ________ phase. The line of this phase is descending, but generally it does not reach zero due to __________ _____________.
65. The importance of the growth curve is due to the fact that it has a great application in the
research and in the industry _____________ that manufacture antibacterial substances.
66. Changing conditions in the growing medium means that growth is reduced in the
phase _____________.
67. The period after inoculation in the growth curve of bacteria is known as ______________ and there is great activity of _____________ there.
68. The bacterial growth curve also applies to _______________________.
69. The phase where there is geometric growth is ___________.
70. Bacterial growth ceases for the following reasons: _____________, ______________, _____________, __________________ and ________________________.
Answer: he phase of the growth curve where industries get the most out of thei...
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41. Water activity refers to _______________________ and is very important in the field of ______________ _______________.
42. Water activity is inversely proportional to __________ _____________.
43. The optimal water activity for most bacteria is __________.
44. The ______ phase of the bacterial growth curve where there is greater metabolic activity.
45. We say that the growth in bacteria is exponential because ___________________ ________________________.
46. ​​Transition periods in the growth curve refer to the time ___________ ________________________ and are due to ____________ in ___________________.
47. The phase of the growth curve where there is great metabolic activity, but there is no
significant growth is the ________________.
48. The only techniques that determine viable growth are based on ____________________.
49. The Petroff-Hausser camera is used to make ____________________________________.
50. The turbidimetry method uses a ______________________ and is used to determine bacterial growth indirectly and is a method for ______________________.
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BRICS is a new Organization investing in Marble Production in Ethiopia. The CEO and owner of BRICS 
Company is Mrs. Hariet Obang. Five years ago, Mrs. Hariet recruited 500 employees based on the 
strategic plan of the Company and the number of employees has now declined to 300. The cause for 
employee turnover is said to be lack clear compensation schemes as compared to other industries. This 
has caused a continuous decrease in performance and also marble production particularly in the last six 
months.
The CEO, Mrs. Hariet decided to undertake some reform to enhance performance and productivity 
basically by undertaking some changes in the areas of Human Resource. The CEO’s assumption is that 
she has few employees while she has failed to recruit new employees because of scarcity in the market. 
She is also intending to have included Human Resources into Organizational Plan and align with 
Organizational Strategy. 
However, unless she takes some measure in the coming few weeks she is going to be in trouble in terms 
of productivity and performance.

Answer: Given the situation at BRICS Company, it is crucial for CEO Mrs. Harie...
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The figure shows a uniform beam of mass m pivoted at its lower end, with a horizontal spring attached between its top end and a vertical wall. The beam makes an angle 𝜃 with the horizontal.

A beam of mass m is angled up and to the right at an angle of 𝜃 above the horizontal ground. The beam is attached at its lower end to a pivot that allows it to rotate about an axis that points out of the page. The right side of a spring labeled k is attached to the free end of the beam, and the spring extends leftward, fixed to a vertical wall at its left end. (a) Find an expression for the distance d the spring is stretched from equilibrium. (Use any variable or symbol stated above along with the following as necessary: k and g.)
d =       

(b) Find expressions for the components of the force exerted by the pivot on the beam. (Use the following as necessary: m, k, g, and 𝜃. Assume the positive x-direction is to the right and the positive y-direction is upward.)
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