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27 Feb 2018

What molecular changes are required during the reprogramming of a skin cell to an embryonic stem (ES) cell? It may help to think about this question in reverse: what happens to a cell during development as it develops from a pluripotent cell in the embryo to a specialized differentiated skin cell with a restricted function? The answer helps to explain why somatic cell nuclear transfer and induced pluripotent stem cell generation are so inefficient.

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28 Feb 2018

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The second experiment is described in the following abstract:

Successful reprogramming of differentiated human somatic cells into a pluripotent state would allow creation of patient- and disease-specific stem cells. We previously reported generation of induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells, capable of germline transmission, from mouse somatic cells by transduction of four defined transcription factors. Here, we demonstrate the generation of iPS cells from adult human dermal fibroblasts with the same four factors: Oct3/4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc. Human iPS cells were similar to human embryonic stem (ES) cells in morphology, proliferation, surface antigens, gene expression, epigenetic status of pluripotent cell-specific genes, and telomerase activity. Furthermore, these cells could differentiate into cell types of the three germ layers in vitro and in teratomas. These findings demonstrate that iPS cells can be generated from adult human fibroblasts.

What does this tell you about the nature of the changes that take place during the process of differentiation? How would you think that the reactivation of these genes might act?

silverwombat839

QuestionGroup: #21 Gene expression 2

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The direct end result of gene expression is which of the following?

Amino acids

Translation

Proteins

Carbohydrates

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QuestionGroup: #22 Mutation

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Which of the following is the ways in which nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins?

One nucleotide is substituted by another nucleotide, which can cause an early stop codon to be incorporated into the amino acid sequence resulting in a truncated protein.

One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can change an amino acid in the protein sequence

Nucleotides are inserted into a nucleotide sequence causing a frameshift in the sequence.

All three choices may cause mutations.

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QuestionGroup: #23 Mutation 2

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Mutations are the result of which of the following?

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different carbohydrates

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different proteins

Change in the order of transfer RNA to messenger RNA so that the transfer RNA take over the role of Messenger RNA

Primarily an alteration in the sequence of nucleotides in the abnormal proteins

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QuestionGroup: #24 Cell division

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There are two major kinds of cell division. Which of the following plays a major role in promoting genetic diversity?

Meiosis since it causes the cells to make more daughter cells than mitosis

Mitosis since it causes the cells to duplicate and eventually have mutations

Meiosis since it causes the DNA sequences to be separated into new patterns in the daughter cells.

Mitosis since it essential for the ovaries in humans to separate and duplicate

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QuestionGroup: #25 Cancer

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Genes that slow down or stop the cell cycle are called...

Apoptotic genes

Oncogenes

Restriction genes

Tumor suppressor genes

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QuestionGroup: #26 Cancer2

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The common theme in the development of all cancers is...

Mutation

Evolution

Infection

Syncopation

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QuestionGroup: #27 Genetics

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Punnett's square is which of the following?

Example of all possible combinations of alleles

Example of all possible combinations of chromosomes

Example of only certain combination of alleles since some will not be expressed.

Example of all possible combinations of DNA

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QuestionGroup: #28 Embryo development

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Which of the following is the end of the cleavage phase?

A fetus

Formation of a blastocyst

Implantation to the lining of the uterus

Fewer number of cells

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QuestionGroup: #29 Development of organ system

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For organs to be differentiated, which of the following is the first step?

Stem cells trigger the development of differentiated cells

Tissues assemble into organ systems such as blood

Tissue specific genes in stem cells are triggered

Differentiated cells form tissues

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QuestionGroup: #30 Development and society

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A pregnant mother ingests a chemical which her mother said would be great for the baby. When the baby was born, it had a large head and flippers for arms. What caused this phenotype?

The chemicals were teratogens which influenced oxidative phosphorylation causing the changes in the phenotype.

The chemicals influenced the expression of different stem cells.

There is no way to assume the chemicals caused the phenotype since we have no data on other mothers who took this medicine. It could have been purely by chance.

The chemicals were teratogens which caused the baby to show early signs of evolution.

16. All of the following are true about ear infections EXCEPT:

Middle ear infections (otitis media) often produce a puslike exudate (referred to as otitis media with effusion) due to infection by genera of Streptococcus, Haemophilus, or various species of anaerobes.

External auditory canal (otitis externa) infections are typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

After successful treatment of middle ear infections with antibiotics, sometimes tubes are inserted to prevent fluid accumulation, repeated infections, and hearing loss.

Pseudomonad infections are common in swimmers because these organisms are able to produce a soluble greenish-blue pigment.

Repeated ear infections in children often decrease markedly because as the child ages and the Eustachian tube changes shape and develops an angle that prevents most organisms from reaching the middle ear.

17. Why are colds difficult to treat and prevent?

Different cold viruses predominate during different seasons.

Because there are so many different types of rhino- and coronaviruses, each with different antigens, development and administration of vaccines are currently prohibitive.

Although some human interferons have been shown to block or limit rhinovirus infections, delivery to infection sites is difficult, and unwanted side effects can occur.

All of the above.

Both a and c.

18. Which of the following is NOT true about parainfluenza viruses?

Most infants by the age of 6 months have been exposed to and develop antibodies against all 4 parainfluenza viruses.

They cause rhinitis characterized by nasal, pharyngeal, and bronchial inflammation, primarily in children.

Parainfluenza virus infection can be prevented by vaccination.

They can cause noisy respiration (stridor) and acute obstruction of the larynx called croup.

The viruses are spread by direct contact or by large droplets.

19. In whooping cough, patients experience violent coughing episodes during the _________ stage and can have bluing of the skin or _________ due to lack of oxygen from massive mucus and bacterial airway blockage.

Paroxysmal; cyanosis

Catarrhal; pigmentation

Convalescent; osmosis

Pneumotic; hydrolysis

Primary; emesis

20. Penicillins have no effect on Mycoplasma pneumoniae because:

Mycoplasmas are viruses

Mycoplasmas possess beta lactamases

Mycoplasmas are too small

Mycoplasmas are eukaryotes

Mycoplasmas lack cell walls

21. How many cases of tuberculosis are reported globally each year?

10,000

100,000

3 million

10 million

22. Mycobacteria are difficult to Gram stain, and are termed âacid-fastâ due to their:

Ability to survive in acidic conditions

Resistance to drying

Thick, waxy cell walls

Resistance to sunlight

Lack of a peptidoglycan layer

23. Which of the following is true about pathogenic mycobacteria?

They have a long generation time of 12 to 18 hours.

They are obligate anaerobes sensitive to small amounts of oxygen.

They are highly resistant to drying and can remain viable in dried sputum 6 to 8 months later.

Both a and b.

Both a and c.

24. Clinical symptoms of tuberculosis are primarily due to:

Host inflammatory response

Mycotoxins

Endotoxin

Mucus production

Exotoxin

25. What characteristic of Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, allows it to survive for up to 2 years?

Metachromatic granule

Exotoxin

Endospore

Hemagglutinin

Cilia

26. The normal microflora of the heart includes species of:

Gram-positive bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria

Fungi

Viruses

None of these

27. Which of the following is commonly directly responsible for causing septic shock today?

Bacterial hemagglutinins

Bacterial endotoxins

Bacterial exotoxins

Fungal aflatoxins

Bacterial neurotoxins

28. All of the following are symptoms of septic shock EXCEPT

Shock

Lymphangitis

Chills

Fever

Collapsed blood vessels

29. What is the most likely explanation of how Streptococcus pyogenes causes rheumatic fever?

Strep throat infections migrate down to the heart.

Endotoxin production causes septicemia.

Vegetation followed by fibrin deposition.

Cross-reactivity of an antibody for a Streptococcus pyogenes antigen to a heart cell antigen.

It is an opportunistic infection triggered by coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis.

30. Bacterial endocarditis is an infection and inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart and occurs as a result of transient bacteria attaching to fibrin from exposed collagen fibers of damaged valvular surfaces. True or false?