🏷️ LIMITED TIME OFFER: GET 20% OFF GRADE+ YEARLY SUBSCRIPTION →
Log in
Biology
2
answers
0
watching
73
views
23 Mar 2018

Deli meat is generally prepared with high concentrations of salt for preservation. Which bacteria would thrive on most deli meat despite these efforts of preservation?

B. stearothermophilus

S. ruber

T. thiooxidans

P. aueruginosa

Watch
2
answers
0
watching
73
views

For unlimited access to Homework Help, a Homework+ subscription is required.

2 Dec 2023

Unlock all answers

Get 1 free homework help answer.
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Already have an account? Log in
Share

Related textbook solutions

Molecular Cell Biology
8 Edition,
Lodish
ISBN: 9781464183393
Biology: Science for Life with Physiology
6 Edition,
Belk
ISBN: 9780134555430
Biology
2nd Edition, 2013
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172517
Concepts of Biology
OER Edition,
Openstax
ISBN: 9781938168116
Essentials of Biology
5 Edition,
Mader
ISBN: 9781259660269

Related questions

QUESTION 1

Protein intakes may increase as a result of illness as wellas

when women are lactating.

during moderate anaerobic activity.

during times of optimal health.

any of the above.

Question 2

In order to gain muscle size and strength, it is necessaryto

increase protein intake well above the RDA.

train intensely with adequate rest periods in between.

train every day at the highest intensity possible.

all of these.

Question 3

Protein is needed for normal development of cells and musclemass but excessive amounts of protein

are even better and will bring faster results.

will not significantly increase the building of body tissue.

won't add significant strength to the body.

b and c.

Question 4

In the U.S., protein-energy malnutrition can be seen most oftenin which of the following populations?

Cancer patients

AIDS patients

Inner city children

All of these

QUESTION 5

Reasons why people choose to become vegetarians include

ethical issues surrounding animal rights.

personal health reasons.

weight loss.

any of the above.

QUESTION 6

How can people reduce the amount of animal protein they eatdaily?

Eat meat less often and in smaller portions.

Choose meat alternates as protein sources.

Select plant-based protein sources occasionally.

Any of the above.

QUESTION 7

High intakes of animal protein sources are associated withserious health risks such as

increased cardiovascular disease.

colon cancer.

breast cancer.

all of these.

QUESTION 8

People who are semi-vegetarians eat

meat or animal products every other day.

animal foods most of the time except on religious holidays.

meat, milk, or eggs only periodically.

any of the above.

QUESTION 9

For people who wish to lose weight, most experts might advisethem to

consider eating more vegetarian protein sources.

stay at the top of the Food Guide Pyramid for food choices.

focus on the middle of the Food Guide Pyramid for choices.

eat only plant-based proteins, completely eliminating meat.

QUESTION 10

Kwashiorkor, a condition frequently found in the Republic ofGuinea, is characterized by

a diet lacking in a direct source of protein such as meat.

a starch-based diet.

a diet consisting of water and oil with lots of rice.

all of these.

1. Which of the following statements about E. coli bacteria is TRUE?

A. It is only found in undercooked beef.

B. It is only found in unpasteurized milk.

C. It is a harmless bacterium.

D. It only affects foods prepared outside of the home.

E. It has been found in undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk and juice, and raw fruits and vegetables.

2. Where can food preparation result in foodborne illness?

A. private homes

B. catering/banquet facilities

C. institutions such as schools or prisons

D. restaurants

E. All of the above.

3. Which of the following results in the highest number of cases of foodborne illness?

A. norovirus

B. Salmonella

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Campylobacter

E. Staphylococcus aureus

4. Pregnant women have a significantly higher risk of contracting foodborne illness caused by a specific pathogen. Which is it?

A. E. coli

B. Salmonella

C. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Campylobacter

E. Bacillus cereus

5. Common food and beverage sources of Salmonella include all of the following, EXCEPT

A. eggs

B. poultry

C. unpasteurized milk

D. raw oysters

E. meat

6. In order to prevent illness, those most at risk for foodborne illness should avoid all of the following foods and beverages, EXCEPT

A. raw sprouts (alfalfa, bean, or any other sprout)

B. hot dogs heated thoroughly

C. raw or undercooked eggs or foods containing raw or undercooked eggs

D. raw shellfish and their juices

E. unpasteurized (raw) milk

7. The safe zone for refrigerated foods is to be chilled below

A. 70oF

B. 50oF

C. 41oF

D. 32oF

E. 1oF

8. If everyone who attended a family reunion and ate a freshly prepared meal of carved roast turkey became sick with a foodborne illness, and those who ate the freshly prepared carved roast beef did not, then what aspect of the four steps to food safety would most likely have been the cause?

A. clean

B. separate

C. cook

D. chill

E. None of the above.

9. You purchase deli meat wrapped in plastic from a grocery store, carry it out to your car in a paper bag, and leave it in the car while running errands for another hour. It is 80 degrees outside. Which of the four steps of food safety have you neglected to follow?

A. clean

B. separate

C. cook

D. chill

E. All of the above.

10. What should be used to measure the internal temperature of meat to ensure that it has been cooked thoroughly and to avoid foodborne illness?

A. probe thermometer

B. mercury thermometer

C. appearance of the meat (when it looks done)

D. the oven’s temperature setting

E. cooking time

11. Why is it important for foods to be promptly chilled at the correct, safe temperature?

A. to improve taste

B. to improve appearance

C. to reduce the likelihood of bacterial growth

D. to have leftovers

E. to shorten cooking time

12. Which of the following is TRUE about USDA-certified organic food?

A. healthier than nonorganic food

B. safer than nonorganic food

C. considerably less expensive than non-organic food

D. made up of 50% certified-organic ingredients

E. at least 95% of the agricultural ingredients must be certified organic

13. Which federal agency has the primary legal responsibility for food additives?

A. FDA

B. USDA

C. DHHS

D. NIH

E. CDC

14. Who is LEAST likely to be negatively affected by a foodborne illness?

A. 45-year-old adult with HIV/AIDS

B. 20-year-old healthy college student

C. 80-year-old nursing home resident

D. 15-year-old chemotherapy patient

E. 15-month-old baby

15. Refrigerated leftovers should be eaten or thrown out within , in the interest of health and food safety.

A. 1 day

B. 2 days

C. 4 days

D. 1 week

E. 10 days

16. The FDA has approved food irradiation for all of the following, EXCEPT

A. meat

B. poultry

C. fresh fruits

D. dairy foods

E. fresh vegetables

17. The virus that causes the most foodborne illnesses and a significant number of related hospitalizations is

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Campylobacter

C. Salmonella

D. hepatitis

E. norovirus

18. The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) signed in 2011 is praised because of the focus on

A. food taste

B. food defense

C. food prices

D. access to food

E. access to farm land

19. High intake of which food additive has been connected to hyperactivity in some children?

A. artificial food colors (AFC)

B. monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

C. salt

D. citric acid

E. fructose

20. All of the following can increase the likelihood of experiencing food insecurity, EXCEPT

A. poverty

B. unemployment

C. having a family farm

D. living in a food desert

E. cost of nutritious foods

21. Which one of these programs is the largest program in addressing domestic hunger?

A. Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

B. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)

C. National School Breakfast Program

D. National School Lunch Program

E. Meals on Wheels

22. In the United States, there are several widely sold, common genetically modified (GM) foods. These include all of the following, EXCEPT

A. organic apples

B. corn

C. rice

D. tomatoes

E. soybeans

23. What can influence the world’s food supply?

A. drought

B. flooding

C. civil unrest

D. climate change

E. All of the above.

24. A sustainable food system needs

A. uncontrolled population growth

B. safe and secure food supply

C. rapid climate change

D. constant drough

E. one-crop megafarms

25. Those who argue FOR genetically modified foods cite all of the following, EXCEPT

A. increased supply of food

B. drought-resistant plants

C. increased susceptibility to some pests

D. increased vitamin content in foods

E. improved food taste

26. Composting is an example of which type of sustainable food strategy?

A. buying local

B. purchasing organic foods

C. eliminating industrial meat consumption

D. reducing food waste

E. eating unprocessed foods

27. It is estimated that demand for food will rise by between 70% and 100% by 2050. What is one factor that will contribute to increasing demand?

A. population growth

B. civil unrest

C. unemployment

D. falling incomes

E. existing food insecurity

28. Which of the following is a legitimate potential risk of growing and consuming genetically modified foods?

A. The food tastes better, so people eat more.

B. The food lasts longer but loses nutritional benefits.

C. A plant food could produce a protein that is allergenic to some people.

D. The food may be infested with pests.

E. The food may absorb too much water and cause bloating.

29. Dirty equipment in a food truck has contaminated food as it travels to the grocery store. In which step of the food supply process did the contamination occur?

A. planting

B. production

C. processing and distribution

D. preparation

E. None of the above.

30. Fecal-oral transmission can occur at all of the following times, EXCEPT

A. when a food handler does not wash his/her hands before touching food to be prepared

B. when a daycare worker does not wash his/her hands after changing a baby’s diaper and then picking up another child’s bottle to feed them

C. when a food server cleans the restaurant bathroom and does not wash his/her hands before delivering food plates to a table

D. when animal fecal matter is present in the field where produce is grown and harvested

E. after toys in a daycare facility are soaked in a bleach-and-water solution overnight

31. All of the following are TRUE of parasites, EXCEPT that they can

A. live in a host

B. live on a host

C. multiply in foods

D. be a worm

E. be single-celled

32. The most common symptoms of foodborne illness are

A. bleeding

B. fever

C. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

D. diarrhea

E. fever and vomiting

33. Which of the following is one of the most common bacterial causes of diarrheal illness and hospitalizations in the United States and is found in over half of all raw chickens, in addition to being found in raw milk and raw shellfish?

A. Clostridium perfrigens

B. Campylobacter

C. E. coli

D. Staphylococcus

E. meningitis

34. Which type of cheese should a pregnant woman avoid to reduce her risk of contracting a foodborne illness?

A. cheddar cheese

B. Swiss cheese

C. American cheese

D. queso fresco

E. mozzarella cheese

35. What process has been used to reduce the likelihood of foodborne illness experienced by NASA astronauts in space?

A. pasteurization

B. vaccinations

C. irradiation

D. antibiotics

E. antibacterial spacesuits

36. The USDA has recommended safe internal temperatures for foods. Which type of meat must be heated to the highest temperature?

A. turkey and chicken

B. ground beef

C. fully cooked ham (to reheat)

D. fish

E. beef roast

37. Two ways to prevent cross contamination in your kitchen are

A. wash hands, use clean dishes

B. wash hands, reuse plates when needed

C. wash hands, always use same cutting board for raw meats and vegetables

D. wash hands, store raw meats in same grocery bag as other foods

E. wash hands, clean off surfaces with the same cloth used to wipe up floor spills

38. What can food handlers do prior to food preparation to easily and dramatically reduce the likelihood of causing foodborne illnesses?

A. cover their mouth with their hand when coughing

B. wash hands before preparing food

C. wipe feet before entering kitchen

D. take medication to reduce fever before coming to work

E. store raw meat in an uncovered container

39. Who is most at risk for foodborne illness?

A. healthy 20 yr old male

B. 30 yr old female

C. infant 6 mo old female

D. 45 yr old female nurse

E. all the above

40. What is a favorable conditions for bacterial growth in food?

A. foods kept at temp. below 40 degree F

B. food kept at temp. above 140 degree F

C. food with a high moisture content

D. food with a low moisture content

E. very sweet food

TRUE or FALSE (A for true and B for false)

41. Food additives may be used to maintain freshness of food.

42. Foodborne intoxication is caused by ingestion of food that contains a toxin that may be naturally present in the food.

43. Staphylococcus aureus lives on the skin.

44. One foodborne pathogen that pregnant women are often warned against is protozoans.

45. The pathogen Norovirus cause muscle aches and fever.

46. The 1993 Jack in the Box outbreak caused Congress to update the monitoring of meatpacking plants in the United Stated.

47. Cross contamination is the transfer of bacteria or other pathogens from one source or surface to another.

48. Sit-down restaurants are the single setting of preparation responsible for the highest number of illness resulting from foodborne disease outbreaks.

49. Salmonella pathogen causes the most severe illness of all pathogens.

50. The FDA is responsible for regulating the safety of GM crops consumed by humans and animals in the United States.

HELP WITH BIO MULTI CHOICE QUESTIONS:

QUESTION 2

Which of the following structures discussed in class is NOT found on all bacteria?
Flagella
Capsid
Fimbria
Plasma membrane


QUESTION 3
You are presented with a strain of bacteria that is resistant to the antibiotic penicillin. What steps would you take to confirm that you have a resistant bacterium?
Perform a Gram stain to determine pink stained Gram-positive bacteria.
Perform a Gram stain to determine purple stained Gram-positive bacteria.
Perform a Gram stain to determine pink stained Gram-negative bacteria.
Perform a Gram stain to determine purple stained Gram-negative bacteria.

QUESTION 4
With respect to bacterial growth into a fresh culture tube containing nutrient broth, at which phase do organisms undergo binary fission the most rapidly?
Lag phase
Stationary
Exponential
death

QUESTION 5
How would antibiotic resistance be passed from one bacterium to another bacterium?
Through the flagella via a plasmid.
Through the sex pilus via chromosomal DNA.
Through the sex pilus via a plasmid.
Through the flagella via chromosomal DNA.

QUESTION 6
When an F plasmid integrates into the host chromosome, the strain is referred to as

Hfr.
F'.
F-.
F+.

QUESTION 7
If you remove the peptidoglycan layer from a Gram-positive cell, it would still stain purple with a Gram stain (T/F).
True
False

QUESTION 8
During infection with a bacteriophage, bacterial DNA is packaged into a capsid and will:

be integrated into the genome of a new bacterium upon ligation.
be integrated into the genome of a new virion upon recombination.
be integrated into the genome of a new bacterium upon recombination.
be integrated into the genome of a new virion upon liagation.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements best describes most bacteria?
They are generally harmful.
They are limited to living in a few habitats.
They are very common in the environment.
They are responsible for the “common cold.”


QUESTION 10
Prokaryotes lack some parts found in eukaryotic cells, including which item?
a nuclear membrane
DNA
one or more chromosomes
a plasma membrane
all of the above

QUESTION 11
With respect to gram negative bacteria, what is the order of the bacterial cell structure from outside to inside?
Thin peptidoglycan layer, plasma membrane

thick peptidoglycan layer, plasma membrane

outer membrane, thick peptidoglycan layer, plasma membrane

outer membrane, thin peptidoglycan layer, plasma membrane


QUESTION 12
In transformation, a piece of DNA from a dead host can be taken up by living host

True
False

Weekly leaderboard

Home
Homework Help 3,900,000
Biology 460,000
Start filling in the gaps now
Log in