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1. Chromosome morphology types include

: A. telocentric, in which the telomere is near one end of thechromosome. B. metacentric, in which the centromere is near one endof the chromosome. C. paracentric, in which the telomere issomewhat off center. D. telocentric, in which the centromere isnear one end of the chromosome. E. None of the above.

2. A karyotype is

: A. the set of chromosomes of an individual. B. 23 pairs. C. 46chromosomes. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

3. Mutations that affect chromosome structure include all of thefollowing EXCEPT

: A. duplication. B. deletion. C. inversion. D. translation. E.Actually, all of these are mutations that affect chromosomestructure.

4.Duplications can have all of the following effects EXCEPT

: A. providing material for genetic variation and innovation. B.looping out of chromosomes during meiosis. C. novel phenotypes dueto dosage variation. D. suppression of crossing over. E. Actually,all of these can be effects of duplications.

5. Inversions:

A. include paracentric inversions, which include the centromere.B. include pericentric inversions, which do not include thecentromere. C. suppress crossing over in the inverted areas. D.usually lead to dicentric bridges. E. All of the above.

6. Translocations:

A. include reciprocal translocations, in which exchange ofchromosomal parts occurs. B. include nonreciprocal translocations,in which one chromosome donates material to another. C. suppresscrossing over in the case of reciprocal exchanges. D. can involveloss of material, as in Robertsonian translocations. E. All of theabove.

7. Unequal crossing over often leads to

: A. duplications. B. deletions. C. translocations. D. A and B.E. All of the above.

8. Aneuploidy includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. nullisomy. B. monosomy. C. trisomy. D. tetrasomy. E.Actually, all of these are forms of anueploidy.

9. While anueploidy is a change in the number of chromosomes,polyploidy is:

A. a change in the number of sets of chromosomes. B. a change inthe structure of the chromosomes. C. an increase in the rate ofrecombination. D. an increase in the rate of mutation. E. None ofthe above.

10. Polyploidy includes:

A. autopolyploidy, which doubles the chromosome set as a resultof mitotic failure. B. autopolyploidy, which doubles the chromosomeset as a result of meiotic failure. C. allopolyploidy, whichdoubles the chromosome set as a result of meiotic failure. D. A andB. E. All of the above.

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Nestor Rutherford
Nestor RutherfordLv2
28 Sep 2019
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Related questions

**Please answer ALL 10 QUESTION**

1. A species of flowering plant includes plants with blooms that range from bright golden yellow to very pale yellow; no flowers carrying the yellow pigment allele appear white. The allele for yellow flower color:

a. must be a suppressor of another allele.

b. demonstrates incomplete penetrance.

c. demonstrates variable expressivity.

d. must be a modifier of another allele.

e. demonstrates variable penetrance.

2. Coat color in mice is determined by two alleles acting at a single locus: B is dominant and results in mice with black coats, and b is recessive and results in mice with white coats. In a litter of 12 mice, nine are black (B/–) and three are white (b/b). What is the penetrance of the B coat color allele?

a. zero

b. 25 percent

c. 50 percent

d. 75 percent

e. 100 percent

3. Semisterility in nearly 50 percent of the progeny they produce is often an indication that:

a. the parents are translocation heterozygotes.

b. both parents carry pericentric inversions.

c. both parents carry polytene chromosomes.

d. one of the parents carries a chromosomal deletion that removes a telomere.

e. one of the parents carries a chromosomal deletion that removes a chromosome's centromere.

4. A researcher is studying melanoma cells derived from a patient's skin tumor. He determines that all melanoma cells are 2n + 1, but the chromosome number in all normal skin cells is 2n. The 2n + 1 melanoma cells likely arose from:

a. mitotic nondisjunction.

b. meiotic nondisjunction.

c. mitotic recombination.

d. parthenogenesis.

e. colchicine treatment.

5. Why won't a balancer chromosome in Drosophila produce viable crossover products when paired with a wild-type chromosome?

a. Balancer chromosomes contain multiple inversions.

b. Balancer chromosomes contain multiple deletions.

c. Balancer chromosomes have no centromere.

d. Balancer chromosomes have no telomeres.

e. None of the answers is correct.

6. A doctor notes that a patient's genome contains 100 potentially harmful recessive mutations; however, the patient is heterozygous for all of the loci considered and thus does not demonstrate any abnormal phenotypes. The 100 recessive mutations the doctor discovered represent the patient's:

a. bivalents.

b. monosomy.

c.genetic load.

d. amphidiploidy.

e.nondisjunction.

7.The term describing the relationship between the number of copies of a gene and how much product is made from the gene is:

a. gene-dosage effect. gene balance.

b. dosage compensation.

c. transcription.

d. aneuploidy.

8. The gene for upright ears in rabbits has two alleles. The E allele is dominant and results in upright ears, and the recessive e allele results in droopy ears. Of 100 rabbits surveyed, 87 had a genotype for upright ears (E/–). However, only 72 of these 87 rabbits had upright ears; the remaining 15 rabbits had completely droopy ears. This suggests that the allele for upright ears:

a. has incomplete penetrance.

b. has complete penetrance.

c. demonstrates variable expressivity.

d. is lethal.

e. is incompletely dominant.

9. A researcher has selfed an autotetraploid plant with the genotype D/D/d/d, and in the resulting progeny she observes a 35:1 phenotypic ratio. What can she conclude from this observation?

a. The progeny from this cross do not demonstrate a standard Mendelian phenotypic ratio.

b. In the 35:1 phenotypic ratio, the 1 represents the phenotype of the d/d/d/d progeny.

c. During meiosis in the D/D/d/d parent plant, it is likely that only bivalents, no quadrivalents or trivalents, formed.

d. It is likely that in this plant species, gametes associate with one another randomly.

e. All of the answers are correct.

10. A researcher is studying fur color in a new species of bats. He notices that fur color, which is due to the presence of a dominant allele (G), ranges from light gray to very dark gray. In addition, some bats that carry a G allele have no fur pigmentation whatsoever; their coats appear white. This is an example of:

a. only variable expressivity.

b. only incomplete penetrance.

c. both variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance.

d. recessive allele lethality.

e. pleiotropy.

1. A species of flowering plant includes plants with blooms that range from bright golden yellow to very pale yellow; no flowers carrying the yellow pigment allele appear white. The allele for yellow flower color:

a. must be a suppressor of another allele.
b. demonstrates incomplete penetrance.
c. demonstrates variable expressivity.
d. must be a modifier of another allele.
e. demonstrates variable penetrance.

2. Coat color in mice is determined by two alleles acting at a single locus: B is dominant and results in mice with black coats, and b is recessive and results in mice with white coats. In a litter of 12 mice, nine are black (B/–) and three are white (b/b). What is the penetrance of the B coat color allele?

a. zero
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
e. 100 percent

3. Semisterility in nearly 50 percent of the progeny they produce is often an indication that:

a. the parents are translocation heterozygotes.
b. both parents carry pericentric inversions.
c. both parents carry polytene chromosomes.
d. one of the parents carries a chromosomal deletion that removes a telomere.
e. one of the parents carries a chromosomal deletion that removes a chromosome's centromere.

4. A researcher is studying melanoma cells derived from a patient's skin tumor. He determines that all melanoma cells are 2n + 1, but the chromosome number in all normal skin cells is 2n. The 2n + 1 melanoma cells likely arose from:

a. mitotic nondisjunction.
b. meiotic nondisjunction.
c. mitotic recombination.
d. parthenogenesis.
e. colchicine treatment.

5. Why won't a balancer chromosome in Drosophila produce viable crossover products when paired with a wild-type chromosome?

a. Balancer chromosomes contain multiple inversions.
b. Balancer chromosomes contain multiple deletions.
c. Balancer chromosomes have no centromere.
d. Balancer chromosomes have no telomeres.
e. None of the answers is correct.

6. A doctor notes that a patient's genome contains 100 potentially harmful recessive mutations; however, the patient is heterozygous for all of the loci considered and thus does not demonstrate any abnormal phenotypes. The 100 recessive mutations the doctor discovered represent the patient's:

a. bivalents.
b. monosomy.
c.genetic load.
d. amphidiploidy.
e.nondisjunction.

7.The term describing the relationship between the number of copies of a gene and how much product is made from the gene is:

gene-dosage effect.
gene balance.
dosage compensation.
transcription.
aneuploidy.

8. The gene for upright ears in rabbits has two alleles. The E allele is dominant and results in upright ears, and the recessive e allele results in droopy ears. Of 100 rabbits surveyed, 87 had a genotype for upright ears (E/–). However, only 72 of these 87 rabbits had upright ears; the remaining 15 rabbits had completely droopy ears. This suggests that the allele for upright ears:

a. has incomplete penetrance.
b. has complete penetrance.
c. demonstrates variable expressivity.
d. is lethal.
e. is incompletely dominant.

9. A researcher has selfed an autotetraploid plant with the genotype D/D/d/d, and in the resulting progeny she observes a 35:1 phenotypic ratio. What can she conclude from this observation?

a. The progeny from this cross do not demonstrate a standard Mendelian phenotypic ratio.
b. In the 35:1 phenotypic ratio, the 1 represents the phenotype of the d/d/d/d progeny.
c. During meiosis in the D/D/d/d parent plant, it is likely that only bivalents, no quadrivalents or trivalents, formed.
d. It is likely that in this plant species, gametes associate with one another randomly.
e. All of the answers are correct.

10. A researcher is studying fur color in a new species of bats. He notices that fur color, which is due to the presence of a dominant allele (G), ranges from light gray to very dark gray. In addition, some bats that carry a G allele have no fur pigmentation whatsoever; their coats appear white. This is an example of:

a. only variable expressivity.
b. only incomplete penetrance.
c. both variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance.
d. recessive allele lethality.
e. pleiotropy.

Please provide correct answer and explanation to the answer,Thank you!

  1. If an enterprising graduate student decided to repeat theHershey-Chase

    experiment but neglected to perform the blending portion, wherewill the

    isotopes be found?

    a. 35S will be found in the supernatant and 32P will be found inthe pellet

    b. 32P will be found in the supernatant and 35S will be found inthe pellet

    c. Both 32P and 35S will be found in the supernatant

    d. Both 32P and 35S will be found in the pellet

    e. None of the above are correct

  2. Chargaff�s rules include:

    a. The ratio of A�s + T�s to G�s + C�s is always consistent

    b. A=G and T=C

    c. Purines/Pyrimidines = 1

    d. More than one of the above are true

    e. None of the above are true

  3. Sea Urchin DNA contains 18% guanine (which is true); how muchthymine

    does it contain?

    a. 9%

    b. 18%

    c. 32%

    d. 36%

    e. 64%

  4. E. coli DNA contains a little over 25% guanine. If samples weretaken of E.

    coli DNA and Sea Urchin DNA and denatured in water baths, whichwould

    melt at a lower temperature?

    a. E. coli DNA

    b. Sea Urchin DNA

    c. They would melt at the same temperature

    d. There is not enough information to determine the answer

    e. DNA doesn�t �melt,� it isn�t ice cream for goodness sake!

  5. If testing the second generation results in tube B, which modelcan we

    conclude is correct?

    a. Dispersive

    b. Semi-conservative

    c. Conservative

    d. Semi-dispersive

    e. We can�t conclude yet, it could still be more than onepossibility

  6. Phosphorus is required to synthesize dNTPs used in DNAreplication. Imagine

    you grow E. coli in media containing non-radioactive phosphorusfor many

    generations, then switch the E. coli to media containingradioactive

    phosphorous (32P). You then sample the E. coli after one roundof replication

    for radioactivity. Where will you find radioactive phosphorus inthe DNA?

    a. Both strands will contain 32P

    b. One strand will contain 32P

    c. Neither strand will contain 32P

    d. Drats! I knew I should have done suggested problem 12.19!

  7. Which of the following statements about chromosomes are alwaystrue?

    I. Non-histone proteins make up about 5% of a eukaryotic

    chromosome by weight

    II. Histones have a negative charge

    III. Prokaryotes have a single linear chromosome

    a. Only Statement I is true

    b. Only Statement II is true

    c. Only Statement III is true

    d. More than one of the above statements are true

    e. None of the above statements are true

  8. What portion of the human genome is made up of highly repetitiveDNA?

    a. Less than 5%

    b. 6 � 20%

    c. 21 � 30%

    d. 31 � 40%

    e. Over 40%

  9. Which of the following statements are always true?

    I. Histones are very conserved between species

    II. Archaea have nuclei

    III. Prokaryotes are haploid and eukaryotes are diploid

    a. Only Statement I is true

    b. Only Statement II is true

    c. Only Statement III is true

    d. More than one of the above statements are true

    e. None of the above statements are true

  10. An individual�s phenotype is a function of:

    a. The alleles they carry

    b. The environment they live in

    c. The interaction between an individuals genes and theenvironment

    d. Two of the above are correct

    e. All of the above are correct

  11. A homologous pair of chromosomes showing a

    crossover are shown to the right for reference. Are all

    the sperm from one human male genetically identical?

    a. Yes

    b. No, variation occurs during mitosis

    c. No, variation occurs during meiosis I

    d. No, variation occurs during meiosis II

    e. No, variation occurs during both meiosis I and II

  12. Production of gametes in humans requires which kind ofdivision?

    a. Meiotic and is reductional

    b. Mitotic and is reductional

    c. Meiotic and is equational

    d. Mitotic and is equational

    e. None of the above

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