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Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A - Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
B - The complement system can detect and destroy invading microorganisms.
C - Complement activity is antigen-specific.
D - All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.
E - Complement increases after vaccination.

Part B - All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A - dilation of blood vessels.
B - antibody synthesis.
C - chemotaxis.
D - diapedesis.
E - release of histamines and prostaglandins.

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Lelia Lubowitz
Lelia LubowitzLv2
25 Jul 2019

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Related questions

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

The complement system can detect and destroy invading microorganisms.
All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.
Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
Complement increases after vaccination.
Complement activity is antigen-specific.

1. Lymphocyte maturation (where they acquire their specificity) occurs in which of the following sites?

a. bone marrow b. thymus c. spleen d. Both A and B are correct e. A, B, and C are correct

2. Which of the following is NOT part of the inflammatory process?

a. dilation of blood vessels

b. release of histamines and prostaglandins

c. Chemotaxis of polymorphomuclear leukocytes

d. tissue regeneration

e. antibody synthesis

Which best describes the term "immunological disorder"?
a. An exaggerated or inadequate immune response.
b. A disorder that destroys the immune system.
c. Any genetic disease.
d. A complete lack of immune function.
e. Immune problems that cause disease but cannot be detected.

2. How would an immune deficient person react to the introduction of an antigen to their bodies, assuming the cause of the deficiency was genetic?
a. Inadequate immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.
b. Inadequate immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.
c. Excessive immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.
d. Excessive immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.

3. An ordinarily innocuous substance that can trigger a harmful immunological response in a sensitized person.
a. Autoimmune substance
b. Antibody
c. Allergen
d. Transfusion
e. Wheal

4. Which is the best example of an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity?
a. Clumping of red blood cells
b. Generalized inflammation
c. DiGeorge Syndrome
d. Airway restriction
e. Arthus reaction

5. Which of these is the first action that takes place during an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Production of plasma cells
b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils
c. Activation of B cells
d. Production of IgE antibodies
e. Degranulation

6. A patient has signs of allergy following a blood transfusion. Which of these hypersensitivities is being displayed?
a. Immediate (Type I)
b. Cytotoxic (Type II)
c. Immune complex (Type III)
d. Cell-mediated (Type IV)
e. Localized

7. Which of these mechanisms is NOT involved in the mechanism of Type II hypersensitivities?
a. Opsonization of cellular antigens
b. Mediation by IgG and IgM
c. Destruction of invading cells
d. Complement
e. Prostaglandin and histamine release

8. How is hemolytic disease of the unborn prevented?
a. Treatment of the infant with steroids.
b. Antihistamine administration to both mother and infant.
c. Administration of serum tests to the infant and careful monitoring.
d. Injection of the mother with anti-Rh IgG antibodies.
e. All of these choices.

9. Immune complex (Type III) hypersensitivity results from the formation of:
a. soluble/particulate antigen-complement complexes.
b. cellular antigen-antigen complexes.
c. soluble/particulate antibody-antibody complexes.
d. cellular antibody-antibody complexes.
e. soluble/particulate antigen-antibody complexes.

10. A local immune response to an antigenic substance (usually injected) that causes edema and hemorrhage is known as _____.
a. serum sickness
b. Arthus reaction
c. hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. hemolytic uremic syndrome
e. generalized anaphylaxis

11. One form of Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity that involves phagocytes capturing but failing to kill pathogens, so a mass of cells forms around the pathogens, is:
a. Atopy
b. Tuberculin hypersensitivity
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
d. Granulomatous hypersensitivity
e. Serum sickness

12. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity is often referred to as a "delayed" hypersensitivity because reactions may take _____ to develop.
a. less than one hour
b. 1-2 hours
c. at least 12 hours
d. 1-2 weeks
e. a month or more

13. Which of these takes place during a Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Release of cytokines.
b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils.
c. Release of histamine and heparin.
d. Activation of complement.
e. Activation of B cells.

14. This type of disorder arises from a hypersensitivity to self antigenson cells and in tissues.
a. Immunodeficiency
b. Autoimmune
c. Anaphylactic
d. Granulomatous
e. Desensitization

15. This occurs when the immune system responds to a body component as if it were foreign.
a. Immunodeficiency
b. Transplantation
c. Antigenic mimicry
d. Autoimmunization
e. Allergic reaction

16. Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disorder?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. Rheumatic fever
e. DiGeorge Syndrome

17. Under which circumstances is an organ transplant most likely to succeed?
a. If recipient T cells become sensitized to the graft.
b. If patient complement binds to graft cells.
c. If immunosupression therapy is avoided.
d. If the graft has the same histocompatibility antigens as the recipient.
e. If plasma cells proliferate in response to the graft.?

18. Which of the following would be typical of a Type IV sensitivity to a drug?
a. A nurse develops contact dermatitis from frequent contact with Betadine.
b. A patient has a generalized anaphylaxis to intravenous Rocephin.
c. IgG and IgM are produced in a patient due to administration of sulfonamides.
d. Serum sickness develops after a patient has multiple exposures to penicillin.

19. A 40 year old patient examined in an emergency department presents with fatigue, wasting, and diarrhea. Tests show a very low helper T cell level, and an endoscopy shows loss of Peyer’s patches in the colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Chronic Epstein-Barre infection
b. DiGeorge Syndrome
c. Agammaglobinemia
d. HIV/AIDS
e. Guillian-Barre Syndrome

20. This test, often coupled with a Western blot, utilizes enzymes that produce a colored compound if the antigen or antibody of interest is present.
a. Complement fixation test
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. Precipitin test
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
e. Immunofluorescence

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