bhavish0602

Distinguish between delta G0', delta G, & Gf0?

You are developing a porous membrane for use in a dialysis system. The membrane must be able to retain both protein and glucose on the inlet side and allow other, smaller molecules to flow through.

You have found that the membrane is 0.25 mm thick and contains long, rectangular pores with awidth of 0.1 microns. 57% of the 50 cm^2 membrane surface area iscovered with pores. At e s t fluid (viscosity = 1.5 cP, density= 1015 kg/m^3) is passed through the membrane. You can assume that the test fluid has a composition similar to that ofblood plasma.

An initial test is. run at physiological conditions, and you observethat the flow rate of fluid through the membrane is 500 cm^3/min. Given this data, what must the hydrodynamic pressure drop across the membrane in your test system be in pascals?

A)

What is the apparent viscosity (Pas) of blood that is experiencing a shear rate of 52 s^-1? Assume the blood has a yield stress of 0.005 pascals and a value of2 cP^1/2 for the parameter.

B) If this blood was flowing in 100-micron arteriole, explain how you would calculate the apparent viscosity of the blood.

7. Explain why a recessive allele can only be expressed when the organism is homozygous.

6. Use the following words to complete this statement: phenotype, genotype, heterozygous, homozygous traits, alleles, genes

Chromosomes contain _____, which help to determine an organism’s ______. Genes come in alternate forms called_____, and both parents may not have the same type of allele. The actual gene combination that an organism receives from its parents is called its _____, while the trait that gets expressed as a result is referred to as its______. If an offspring receives the same type of allele for a given gene from each parent, it is said to be _____ for that trait. If the alleles differ, it is _____.

1) When cortisol is elevated it increased gluconeogenesis by increasing phosphoenol-pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK). It does this by:

a) activating protien kinase A, thus allowing te catalytic subunit to diffuse into the nucleus and phosphorylate CREB to inituate gene transcription

b) Binding to a nuclear receptor and initiating gene transcription

c) Binding a receptor tyrosine kinase and initiation a MAPKKK cascade

d) increasing cytosolic level of cAMP

2) Which of the following cofactors or vitamins is required for the transport of long chain fatty acids across the mitochondrial membrane?

a) thiamine

b) carnitine

c) biotin

d) folate

The process of mitosis ensures that the daughter cells have the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell. Therefore, determine whether the daughter cell will be haploid or diploid if the parent cell is :

Haploid –

Diploid –

What is the term that describes the study of the relationship between living things and components of their environment? A. ecology B. analogy C. herpetology D. ichnology E. zoology

A)Define these terms:

Negative control

Positive control

Repression

Induction

Inducer

Corepressor

Activator protein

Repressor protein

Promoter region

Operator region

Activator binding site

The region known as macula dansa represents what part of the kidneys

Part A. Using a direct fluorescent antibody test, a patient's brain tissue sample is flooded with tagged antibody to rabies and it fluoresces when examined under a fluorescent microscope. What can be concluded from this test?

Part B. Which if the following is NOT true about vaccinations?

A. Edward Jenner developed a small pox vaccination using cow pox scab crusts.

B. Louis Pasteur investigated immunization and developed a vaccine to rabies.

C. Vaccines are now available for all infectious diseases, although they are not available to all people.

D. The first documented vaccine-like procedures were variolation by the Chinese against smallpox.

Part C. If a researcher is using an immunodiffusion test to look for the presence of antibodies, __________ will be placed in the well that does not contain the patient's serum

A. tracer dyes

B. both antigens and antibodies

C. antibodies only

D. antigens only

1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Part A. Using a direct fluorescent antibody test, a patient's brain tissue sample is flooded with tagged antibody to rabies and it fluoresces when examined under a fluorescent microscope. What can be concluded from this test?

Part B. Which if the following is NOT true about vaccinations?

A. Edward Jenner developed a small pox vaccination using cow pox scab crusts.

B. Louis Pasteur investigated immunization and developed a vaccine to rabies.

C. Vaccines are now available for all infectious diseases, although they are not available to all people.

D. The first documented vaccine-like procedures were variolation by the Chinese against smallpox.

Part C. If a researcher is using an immunodiffusion test to look for the presence of antibodies, __________ will be placed in the well that does not contain the patient's serum

A. tracer dyes

B. both antigens and antibodies

C. antibodies only

D. antigens only

Which is true of viral transformation? A. Transformed cells are abnormal in aooerance and behavior b. All viruses can cause this c. It kills the cell d. It is done only by bacteriophage

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase examined transformation using bacteriophage (bacterial DNA virus) and bacterial cells. In this experiment, how is transformation (altered phenotype) is displayed?

1.

Virus capsids are made from subunits called:

A) envelopes B) spikes

C) capsomeres

D) prophages E) peplomers

2.A latent viral infection is an infection in which:

A)viral replication has stopped but may resume years or decades later upon reactivation

B)a viral infection causes a disease progression gradually over a long period

C)viruses remain within host cells and NEVER causes disease

D)viral replication is slow

3.Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?

A)inclusions in the nucleus

D)cells change shape

B)multinucleated cells

E)all of the choices are correct

C)inclusions in the cytoplasm

4.The hepatitis B virus:

A)infects only human liver cells.

D)All of the above

B)has a narrow host range.

E)A and B only

C)infects various cells of many mammals.

Which of the ff. Is true about viruses? A. Viruses are the only pathogens that need to enter a host in order to reproduce b. Viruses are all about the same size c. An animal virus is able to grow in every type of tissue and eryyoe of cell in its host organism d. A virion includes genes, a protein capsid, and sometimes a lipid based enveloped

Which is NOT TRUE about the AIDS epidemic? A. Most transmission worldwide is heterosexual and vertical , mother to baby b. We estimate that about 35 million people are currently infected worldwide c. The epidemic in Africa has been going on longer than the one in the US d. In some countries over 35% of childhood deaths are caused by AIDS

According to the retinex theory of color vision, we perceive color by

We perceive a change in hue from blue to red when the

We perceive a decrease in intensity when

We perceive an increase in intensity when

A ratio of light reaching a surface to light leaving asurface.

A measure of the visible light emitted in all directions

Unit of measure is the lumen.

Unit of measure is the Lux.

The rods ... (check all that apply)

The cones ... (check all that apply)

The fovea is

The optic disk is

Visual acuity is

Accommodation is

The retina is

A eye that focuses light in front of the retina is

What Two Cellular Organeles are thought to have once been independent organisms but are noe endosymbiants?

A.) Nucleus & Endoplasmic Reticulum. B.) Chloroplast & Mitchondria. C.) Vacuoles & Ribsomes. D.) Transposons & Golgi Apparatus

What is the Evaluation and Management code for this?

A patient was in an automobile accident and is complaining of a minor headache and no other apparent injuries. History gathered from bystanders states that the patient was not wearing a seat belt and hit his head on the windshield. A 15-minute loss of consciousness was noted. The patient was then admitted for 24-hour observation to rule out head injury. A comprehensive history and exam are performed by the physician. The MDM is of moderate complexity

A patient was in an automobile accident and is complaining of a minor headache and no other apparent injuries. History gathered from bystanders states that the patient was not wearing a seat belt and hit his head on the windshield. A 15-minute loss of consciousness was noted. The patient was then admitted for 24-hour observation to rule out head injury. A comprehensive history and exam are performed by the physician. The MDM is of moderate complexity

what is the evaluation and management code for this?

A new patient diagnosed with mild intellectual disabilities and self-abuse is sent to a custodial care facility for admission. The patient's family is no longer able to care for the patient at home. The care facility physician documents a problem focused history with a problem focused exam. The medical decision making documented was straightforward

1) In absence of trypsin, which of the following digestive zymogens would still be active?

a) Chymotrypsinogen

b) Pepsinogen

c) Proelastase

d) Procarboxypeptidase

2) Which of the following requires ATP?

a) Movement of glucose from the bloodstream into the liver

b) Movement of T3 out of the colloid Space

c) Movement of sodium out of the cell

d) Movement of cortisol through the cell membrane

cell biology

Which of the following is an active transport mechanism?

Where would you expect to find DNA in the following cells?

a. Bacteria cell

b. Plant cell

c. Animal cell

A living cell that contains DNA, RNA, ribosomes, a nucleus, and a cell wall is a:

A. Plant cell

B. Bacterium

C. Animal cell

D. Virus

A living cell that contains DNA, RNA, ribosomes, a nucleus, and no cell wall is a:

A. Plant cell

B. Bacterium

C. Animal cell

D. Virus

Living cell that contains DNA, RNA, ribosomes, and a cell wall (select all that apply).

A. Plant cell

B. Bacterium

C. Animal cell

D. Virus

Living cell that contains DNA, RNA, and ribosomes (select all that apply)

A. Plant cell

B. Bacterium

C. Animal cell

D. Virus

A biological entity that lacks cytoplasm and ribosomes.

A. Plant cell

B. Bacterium

C. Animal cell

D. Virus

1) Curtis Alston relates gluconeogenesis through which of the following mechanisms?

a) Phosphorylating hormone sensitive lipase

b) Decreasing levels of fructose 2, 6 biphosphate

c) Activatingphosphofructokinase-1

d) Increasing levels of PEPCK (phosphoenol carboxykinase)

2) During exercise, epinephrine can enhance skeletal muscle glycogenolysis through which of the following mechanisms?

a) Release of CA +2

b) Allosteric activation of glycogen phosphorylase by AMP

c) Increase in cAMP

d) Increase in phosphatase activity

3) Glucose cannot be synthesized from the Beta-oxidation nation of even fatty acids:

a) The acetyl CoA produced from beta oxygenation is completely oxidized in the TCA cycle

b) Insulin levels are elevated when fatty acids are being oxidized

c) Acetyl CoA produced in the beta oxygenation of fatty acids cannot be transported out of the mitochondrial matrix

d) Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by acetyl CoA produced in the beta oxygenation of fatty acids

1) Which of the following individuals would most likely be in a positive nitrogen balance?

a) A 10-year-old boy after he fell out of a tree and broke his arm

b) A healthy female in the third trimester of pregnancy

c) An elderly individual with pneumonia

2) The process of beta-oxidation and gluconeogenesis are coupled in the fasted state. Which of the following compounds is produced by Beta-oxidation and required for gluconeogenesis?

a) FADH2

b) Acetyl COA

c) Keytone bodies

d) Glycerol

3) Autophagy is a process that involves the degradation of proteins. Under conditions of high energy (High ATP) which of the following is true regarding regulation of this process?

a) AKT is inactive

b) Rhed is bound to GDP

c) AMPK is Active and phosphorylates TSC1/TSC2 complex

d) mTOR is activated

1) Ubiquitination has which of the falling impacts on a protein or enzyme?

a) Increases the activity

b) Direct the protein out of the cell

c) Direct it to the proteasome

d) Target it for phosphorylation

2) A three-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with hypoglycemia following a brief seizure. His parents put him to bed the night before and he had not eaten much dinner. His urine tested positive for dicarboxylic acids and there were no detectable key tones in his blood or urine. In this individual, at the time of presentation’s ratio insulin to glucagon is:

a) >1

b) 1

c) <1

3) A one-year-old female presents to the emergency room with hypoglycemia following a brief seizure. Her parents said she has been having intermittent episodes similar to this and after laboratory tests a deficiency in Beta-oxidation is confirmed. This could potentially be caused by a deficiency in an enzyme or reduced levels of which of the following cofactors required for this process?

a) Paradoxial phosphate

b) Thymine

c) Biotin

d) Carnitine

four of the following may be used to diagnose myocardial infarction. Select the exception. A. missing P wave B. elevated ST segment C. increased serum creatine kinase D. severe chest pain E. increased serum troponin

Match the following terms to the correct definition:

a. Enzyme that elevates in the blood with myocardial infarction.

b. Type of plaque that is at risk for rupture.

c. Characteristic change on the electrocardiogram with myocardial infarction.

d. Type of angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm.

______ Unstable angina.

______ Troponin.

______ ST segment elevation.

______ Variant angina.

5. A patient with chronic-stable angina begins taking metoprolol, and once blood levels reach the therapeutic range the frequency and severity of angina attacks and the need for sublingual nitroglycerin were reduced. Which of the following states the direct pharmacologic action by which the beta-blocker produced the desired effects? A. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

B. Dilated coronary vasculature

C. Directly inhibited angiotensin II synthesis

D. Reduced total peripheral resistance

6. A patient with newly diagnosed essential hypertension starts treatment with a commonly used antihypertensive drug at a dose that is considered to be therapeutic for the vast majority of patients. Soon after starting therapy the patient experiences crushing chest discomfort. ECG changes show myocardial ischemia. Studies in the cardiac catheterization lab show episodes of coronary vasospasm, and it is likely the antihypertensive drug provoke the vasospasm. Which antihypertensive drug most likely caused the ischemia and the angina?

A. Atenolol

B. Diltiazem

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Lozartan

7. A 28-year-old woman is receiving drug therapy for essential hypertension. She subsequently becomes pregnant. You realize that the drug she's been taking for her blood pressure can have serious, if not fatal, effects on the fetus. As a result, you stop the current antihypertensive drug and substitute it with another drug that is deemed to be equally effective in terms of her blood pressure, and safer for the fetus. Which of the following drugs was she most likely taking before she became pregnant?

A. Alpha-Methyldopa

B. Captopril

C. Furosemide

D. Labetalol E. Verapamil

8. The use of propranolol as an antiarrhythmic agent is contraindicated in patients with:

A. COPD

B. Asthma

C. Severe heart failure

D. A and C

E. All of the above

1. Dopamine, epinephrine (or norepinephrine) and histamine are important neurotransmitter agonists. When these ligands interact with their cellular receptors, how do they mainly elicit their responses?

Activate adenylyl cyclase directly, leading to increased intracellular cAMP levels

Activate phospholipase C

Induce or inhibit synthesis of ligand specific intracellular proteins

Open or close ligand gated ion channels

Regulate intracellular second messengers through G-protein-coupled receptors

2. A patient with chronic-stable angina is on prophylactic beta-blocker therapy, with sublingual nitroglycerin used PRN (as needed) for managing acute angina. One day he experiences particularly severe angina and takes the usually recommended dose of sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG). His discomfort is not reduced at all. Seeking relief, he repeats the usual recommended dose of NTG dose 6 times over a period of about 10 minutes, and now has taken far too much of the nitrovasodilator.

An electrocardiogram taken by the paramedics, who were called for the patient’s emergency, shows changes consistent with myocardial ischemia. The patient incurs a massive infarction, goes into cardiac arrest, and cannot be resuscitated.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of or contributing factor to the patient’s ultimately fatal response to the excessive dosage of NTG? Assume the patient was taking no other drugs except the NTG and a beta-blocker.

A. Cyanide, or toxic metabolite of NTG, accumulated.

B. NTG directly induced coronary vasoconstriction.

C. NTG lowered arterial (coronary perfusion) pressure excessively

D. Beta-blocker counteracted the effects of NTG and increased the risk of ischemia

3. A 65-year old man with heart failure is unable to climb a flight of stairs without experiencing dyspnea. After several years of therapy with carvedilol, captopril and furosemide, the therapeutic plan probably needs to change now. You empirically add digoxin to improve cardiac muscle contractility. Within 4 week he has a marked improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following best describes the main cellular action of digoxin that accounts for its ability to improve his cardiovascular function?

A. Activates beta1-adrenergic receptors

B. Facilitates GTP binding to specific proteins

C. Increases mitochondrial calcium (Ca++) release

D. Inhibits sarcolemmal Na/K-ATP-ase

4. A patient has frequent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for outpatient prophylaxis of these events?

A. Adenosine

B. Lidocaine

C. Nifedipine

D. Verapamil

GLUT 2 is a facilitative transporter located at the basolateral membrane of enterocytes. Which of the following is NOT correct about GLUT 2.

a) It does not requires energy to transport glucose

b) It saturates

c) It only transports glucose “downhill”

d) It depends on a sodium gradient

e) It is a protein

Which dancing duo is credited with popularizing Cuban / African dance steps ( = including touching, sensual body-rubbing)?

1. Which of the following plants groups has a dominant gametophyte stage?

A. Bryophytes

B. Bryophytes and Seedless vascular plants

C. Gymnosperms

D. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms

E. Angiosperms

Please showing your explaination for this question with answer.