jennifermongera55

Let's say that you are the economic leader of your country and that your country is just beginning to set up its own automobile industry. In order to better compete with foreign countries that have more experienced and lower cost automobile production capabilities, you feel that it is necessary to impose tariffs and quotas on foreign imported cars. According to our text, this argument is called _______________ and this argument is _________________________.

A. the improving the trade deficit argument; valid and strong, because beginning industries need help and protection getting off the ground.

B. the improving the trade deficit argument; valid and strong, because countries who use this argument need protection for at least several decades from stronger nations who have well-developed industries.

C. the infant industry argument; a good argument for less-developed countries in the short and long run because most of the less-developed countries are poor and their governments are corrupt. Consequently, businesses in these countries need economic help.

D. the infant industry argument; not a good idea, because restricting foreign trade discourages efficiency within the industry and after several years of tariffs and quotas it becomes difficult to eliminate the tariffs. An industry that is not required to fully compete with foreign countries will most likely not become very competitive.

All of the following are true EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Mutual insurance companies issue stock and are organized as for-profit corporations

b. Mutual insurance companies are owned by policy-holders and profits are disbursed in dividends

c. Mutual insurance companies have a harder time raising capital than other insurance companies

d. Mutual insurance companies are permitted to merge with other companies to form a larger company

Employers use law defenses against liability for injury to workers: Which one is not one of the law defenses?

(a) fellow-servant rule

(b) assumption for work place compliance and adherence

(c) assumption of risk doctrine

(d) contributory negligence doctrine

(e) employee risk assumption

1. The purpose of a vaccine is to
Select one:
a. destroy immune cells that would react to an infection.
b. activate the digestive system to remove harmful organisms.
c. provide a rapid response to an invading germ.
d. alter a microorganism and make it harmless.
e. expose people to diseases they would otherwise never encounter.

2. The target of any immune response is known as a(n)
Select one:
a. cytokine.
b. antibody.
c. germ.
d. nucleosome.
e. antigen.

3. The skin acts as a(n) _____, which is a defense not keyed to any specific target.
Select one:
a. monocyte
b. cell-mediated immune response
c. adaptive immune response
d. phagocyte
e. innate barrier

4. Scavenger cells called _____ function in many organisms as digestive cells that engulf foreign antigens.
Select one:
a. monocytes
b. amoebocytes
c. defensins
d. phagocytes
e. cytokines
5. Antimicrobial peptides known as _____ serve to protect insects.
Select one:
a. occludins
b. selectins
c. cytokines
d. antigens
e. defensins

6. Immunity unique to vertebrates that results in immunological memory of specific antigens is called _____ immunity.
Select one:
a. innate
b. adaptive
c. humoral
d. cell-mediated
e. inflammatory

7. B cells are the only cells directly involved in the _____ immune response.
Select one:
a. inflammatory
b. innate
c. humoral
d. cell-mediated
e. adaptive

8.The biochemical called _____ is the major cause of the inflammation response.
Select one:
a. histamine
b. complement
c. defensin
d. MHC
e. cecropin

9.T cells are activated in the
Select one:
a. thyroid.
b. testes.
c. thalamus.
d. thymus.
e. adrenal gland.

10. The _____ is the major destroyer of bacteria in a human body.
Select one:
a. monocyte
b. T cell
c. B cell
d. MHC
e. macrophage

11. Activated by antibody binding to bacteria, _____ is a group of proteins that kill bacteria non-specifically.
Select one:
a. defensin
b. cytokine
c. complement
d. antibody
e. histamine

12.The molecular configuration that is coupled to an antigen by a macrophage for presentation to T cells is called
Select one:
a. cytokines.
b. the major histocompatibility complex.
c. interleukins.
d. autoimmunity.
e. the antibody-complement cascade.

13.The _____ cells are the culprits behind the unpleasant effects of an allergic reaction.
Select one:
a. allergen
b. B
c. mast
d. T
e. phagocytic

14.IgG antibodies crossing the placenta represent _____ immunity.
Select one:
a. innate
b. adaptive
c. humoral
d. passive
e. inflammatory

15.The surface defenses of the body consist of the ___ and the mucous membranes lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

16. The cellular defenses of vertebrates are complemented by a very effective chemical defense called the ___ system.

17.Virus-infected cells secrete a class of proteins called __ that play a key role in body defense.

18. The immune system depends on the function of ___, which include several types of phagocytic cells and two kinds of lymphocytes.

19. The human immunodeficiency virus mounts a direct attack on T4 cells by recognizing the __ surface proteins associated with these cells.

20. ___ cells are the primary target of the AIDS virus.
21. ___ is the production of antibodies that attack one's own tissues.

22. A mother's milk provides __ immunity to a newborn through antibodies in the milk.

23. __ cells can actually attack and kill other cells very specifically.

24. The antigen-binding site of an antibody is found as part of its ___ region.

25. Vaccination is meant to produce __ cells that can respond very quickly to a second infection.

26. A type of B cell called a __ cell is able to make large quantities of a specific antibody.

27. ___ are molecules produced by T cells that activate several functions of the immune response.

28. A(n) __ is basically an overreaction of the immune response to a non-lethal molecule.

17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the transcriptional ground state in higher eukaryotes?

A. Gene promoters are essentially inactive in the absence of regulatory proteins.

B. RNA polymerase initiates efficient transcription in the absence of repressors.

C. Access to promoters is restricted by the structure of chromatin.

D. Virtually every gene requires activation.

18. Which of the following characteristics of eukaryotic gene expression regulation is also true in bacteria?

A. Posttranscriptional regulation is prominent because transcription is separated from translation in space and time.

B. Transcriptional activation is associated with changes in chromatin structure.

C. Many genes are regulated at the level of transcription initiation.

D. The transcriptional ground state is restrictive.

19. Efficiently translated mRNAs tend to be stable in the cytoplasm; those that are poorly translated tend to be rapidly degraded. Which of the following is not a step in the pathway for mRNA degradation?

A. targeting of upstream ORFs for nuclease binding

B. removal of the poly(A) tail

C. removal of the 5' 7-meG cap

D. binding of mRNA by 5'-3' and 3'-5' RNA exonucleases

20. Eukaryotic cells can regulate large sets of genes together by:

A. regulating ribosomal protein pre-mRNA splicing in the nucleus.

B. controlling mRNA stability.

C. controlling translational efficiency.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Fill in the blank: "In a flowchart, the ________ symbol identifies the condition that needs to be verified in a program."

What are some strategies mentioned for improving your communication skills?

Please help me with the attached file!

Rewrite each of the following sentences by removing unnecessary words.

1. Students who are enrolled on the high school level will not be required by school administrators to be in attendance in classrooms on the seventh day of December.

2. Children who have not yet celebrated their 12th birthday will not be allowed by the proprietors of this establishment to proceed beyond this point.

3. The assignment in literature for the class meeting scheduled for today is that students in that course read the material found on pages 137 through 161 in that order.

4. In the case of persons not making payment of their taxes for real estate bills by the first of the month in July a penalty in the form of a $100 fine will be assessed.

5. Any prospective team member who fails to receive approval from a member of the hospital's medical staff in regard to the status of physical health will not be permitted to continue in the capacity of a prospective team member.

6. That woman told the employee of the store who waited on her that the decision she had reached was that she wanted the color of the carpet for the floor of her home to be the color blue.

7. Attention drivers of automobiles passing through this area: do not allow your vehicle to come to rest at the point where the tracks of this railroad intersect with the roadway upon which you are driving your vehicle.

8. The team with the most pennants in the National League is that of the Cardinals from the city of St. Louis.

9. Should the need arise that you feel compelled to place a telephone call to the office of the local department of police, keep in mind that the sequence of numbers to dial is 555-4103.

10. This eating establishment boasts that its specialty appearing on its menu is the serving of chicken which has been fried prior to being brought to diners.

Which sentence of this body paragraph is the warrant part of the "data dump"?

A. Students should be permitted to have phones during emergencies to ensure student safety.

B. Students would be free to text or call their parents or legal guardians during emergencies.

C. This is important because having quick access to a cell phone can make all the difference...

What will occur if you pay off your credit card each month?

A. You will have to take out a loan.

B. You will avoid having to pay interest fees.

C. Your credit score will go down.

D. You will have to pay large interest fees.

Which of the following is true if a bank offers an "introductory rate" of 0% APR?

A. The late fees may exceed 0%.

B. 0% is for a limited time only.

C. 0% interest will be part of that loan forever.

D. The total fees for the loan will always be 0%.

Fact          Inference

If an author uses an allusion in a story, what does the allusion do?

A. describes a mirage

B. refers to something that is related

C. makes a contradiction

1)For a monopolist, average revenue is: A. more than marginal revenue at all output levels. B. less than price at all output levels. C. greater than price at all output levels. D. equal to marginal revenue at all output levels.

2)A profit-maximizing monopolist supplies the quantity at which: A. average revenue exceeds average cost by the greatest amount. B. marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost by the greatest amount. C. marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost by the smallest amount. D. total revenue exceeds total cost by the greatest amount.

3)Which of the following is true of the profit earned by a monopolist? A. Normal profit is ensured where marginal cost exceeds average revenue. B. Normal profit is ensured where price is equal to average total cost. C. Profit is maximized where marginal cost equals marginal revenue. D. Profit is maximized along the inelastic portion of the demand curve.

4)Which of the following factors explain the difference in long-run profits earned by a monopolist and a perfectly competitive firm? A. Perfectly competitive firms have high opportunity costs. B. There are no barriers to entry in perfect competition. C. Monopolists experience economies of scale. D. The demand for the monopolist's output is inelastic.

5)If the marginal cost curve shifts upward, a profit-maximizing monopolist that does not practice price discrimination is likely to respond in the short run by: A. keeping price constant and increasing output. B. raising price and increasing output. C. reducing price and increasing output. D. raising price and decreasing output.

6)When compared to firms in perfect competition, monopolists tend to charge: A. lower prices and offer lower quantities of output. B. lower prices and offer higher quantities of output. C. higher prices and offer higher quantities of output. D. higher prices and offer lower quantities of output.

7)The practice of charging different prices to different consumers for the same product is called: A. unit pricing. B. price discrimination. C. predatory pricing. D. arbitration.

8)If a perfectly competitive industry is monopolized, consumer surplus: A. becomes equal to producer surplus. B. can be expected to decrease. C. usually remains constant. D. becomes double of producer surplus.

9)If a monopolistically competitive firm is in long-run equilibrium and average cost equals $150, then the market price must be $150. True or False

10)The term “monopolistic competition”: A. denotes an industry characterized by one seller of many differentiated products. B. denotes an industry characterized by many sellers of differentiated products. C. is used to describe perfect competition that has strong entry barriers. D. denotes an industry characterized by many sellers of homogeneous products.

1. According to the picture below showing the Colombian Exchange. What area did diseases come from?

To what extent is reducing anxiety- in both the therapist and clients- essential to exploratory therapy? What can a therapist do to reduce her or his anxiety? 

37. A natural monopoly is one in which a. there are economies of scale over the entire market’s range of production. b. one firm can supply the entire market more cheaply than several firms can. c. average cost for one firm is still decreasing at the full market quantity. d. there are extremely large fixed costs. e. all of the above

38. A profit-maximizing monopoly will produce that output for which a. marginal revenue equals price. b. average cost is minimized. c. marginal cost is minimized. d. marginal revenue is maximized. e. marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

39. The principal difference between economic profits for a monopolist and for a competitive firm is that a. monopoly profits create major problems of equity whereas competitive profits do not. b. competitive profits exist only in the short run whereas monopoly profits may exist in the long run as well.
c. monopoly profits represent a transfer out of consumer surplus whereas competitive profits do not. d. monopoly profits are usually larger than competitive profits.

40. In a contestable market a. there are no barriers to entry. b. there are always many firms. c. long run economic profits may be positive. d. all firms are price takers.

Economics is the study of

A. production methods.

B. how society manages its scarce resources.

C. how households decide who performs which tasks.

D. the interaction of business and government.

Point Value: 1

2
When computing the opportunity cost of attending a concert you should include

A. the price you pay for the ticket and the value of your time.

B. the price you pay for the ticket, but not the value of your time.

C. the value of your time, but not the price you pay for the ticket.

D. neither the price of the ticket nor the value of your time.

Point Value: 1

You are considering staying in college another semester so that you can complete a major in economics.? In deciding whether or not to stay you should

A. compare the total cost of your education to the total benefits of your education.

B. compare the total cost of your education to the benefits of staying one more semester.

C. compare the cost of staying one more semester to the benefits of staying one more semester.

D. compare the total benefits of your education to the cost of staying one more semester.

Point Value: 1

Trade between countries tends to

A. reduce both competition and specialization.

B. reduce competition and increase specialization.

C. increase competition and reduce specialization.

D. increase both competition and specialization.

Point Value: 1

5- The "invisible hand" directs economic activity through

A. advertising.

B. prices.

C. central planning.

D. government regulations.

Point Value: 1

6- One reason we need government, even in a market economy, is that

A. there is insufficient market power in the absence of government.

B. property rights are too strong in the absence of government.

C. the invisible hand is not perfect.

D. Both a and b are correct.

Point Value: 1

7.This question has not been answered completely
The government enforces property rights by

A. requiring property owners to pay property taxes.

B. providing police and courts.

C. forcing people to own property.

D. providing public parks and recreation facilities.

Point Value: 1

8.This question has not been answered completely
Causes of market failure include

A. externalities and market power.

B. market power and incorrect forecasts of consumer demand.

C. externalities and foreign competition.

D. incorrect forecasts of consumer demand and foreign competition.

Point Value: 1

9.This question has not been answered completely
Market power refers to the

A. power of a single person or small group to influence market prices.

B. ability of a person or small group to successfully market new products.

C. power of the government to regulate a market.

D. importance of a certain market in relation to the overall economy.

Point Value: 1

10.This question has not been answered completely
Large or persistent inflation is almost always caused by

A. excessive government spending.

B. excessive growth in the quantity of money.

C. foreign competition.

D. higher-than-normal levels of productivity.

Which of the following statement is true?

⚪ The sample regression line always pass through  

Economics is the study of

A. production methods.

B. how society manages its scarce resources.

C. how households decide who performs which tasks.

D. the interaction of business and government.

Point Value: 1

2
When computing the opportunity cost of attending a concert you should include

A. the price you pay for the ticket and the value of your time.

B. the price you pay for the ticket, but not the value of your time.

C. the value of your time, but not the price you pay for the ticket.

D. neither the price of the ticket nor the value of your time.

Point Value: 1

You are considering staying in college another semester so that you can complete a major in economics.? In deciding whether or not to stay you should

A. compare the total cost of your education to the total benefits of your education.

B. compare the total cost of your education to the benefits of staying one more semester.

C. compare the cost of staying one more semester to the benefits of staying one more semester.

D. compare the total benefits of your education to the cost of staying one more semester.

Point Value: 1

Trade between countries tends to

A. reduce both competition and specialization.

B. reduce competition and increase specialization.

C. increase competition and reduce specialization.

D. increase both competition and specialization.

Point Value: 1

5- The "invisible hand" directs economic activity through

A. advertising.

B. prices.

C. central planning.

D. government regulations.

Point Value: 1

6- One reason we need government, even in a market economy, is that

A. there is insufficient market power in the absence of government.

B. property rights are too strong in the absence of government.

C. the invisible hand is not perfect.

D. Both a and b are correct.

Point Value: 1

7.This question has not been answered completely
The government enforces property rights by

A. requiring property owners to pay property taxes.

B. providing police and courts.

C. forcing people to own property.

D. providing public parks and recreation facilities.

Point Value: 1

8.This question has not been answered completely
Causes of market failure include

A. externalities and market power.

B. market power and incorrect forecasts of consumer demand.

C. externalities and foreign competition.

D. incorrect forecasts of consumer demand and foreign competition.

Point Value: 1

9.This question has not been answered completely
Market power refers to the

A. power of a single person or small group to influence market prices.

B. ability of a person or small group to successfully market new products.

C. power of the government to regulate a market.

D. importance of a certain market in relation to the overall economy.

Point Value: 1

10.This question has not been answered completely
Large or persistent inflation is almost always caused by

A. excessive government spending.

B. excessive growth in the quantity of money.

C. foreign competition.

D. higher-than-normal levels of productivity.

Which of the following is NOT a main economic function of the government in a market economy?

a.Government promote equity by using tax and expenditure programs to redistribute income toward particular groups.

b.Government increase efficiency by providing public goods.

c.Government increase efficiency by promoting competition and curbing externalities like pollution.

d.Government use the visible hand to get the upper hand over the invisible hand so as to overcome the scarcity of resources.

11. Natural monopolies arise because of:

A. Government licenses.

B. Patents on technological innovations.

C. Economies of scale.

D. Control over an important natural resource.

12. For a perfectly competitive firm, its long run supply curve is:

A. Horizontal.

B. its marginal cost curve above minimum average variable cost.

C. its marginal cost curve above minimum average total cost.

D. its average variable cost curve below the break-even (zero-profit) point.

13. In the long run for a perfectly competitive firm, no barriers to entry and exit ensures that:

A. There will be no positive economic profits.

B. There will be no negative economic profits.

C. The market price is equal to average total cost.

D. All of the above

14. The primary reason that monopoly produces a deadweight loss to society is:

A. There is less consumer surplus under monopoly than under perfect competition.

B. There is more producer surplus under monopoly than under perfect competition.

C. Some of the consumer surplus under perfect competition is shifted to the monopolist in the form of producer surplus.

D. The loss of consumer surplus exceeds the gain in producer surplus under monopoly.

15. Which is the correct ranking from Most Efficient to Least Efficient type of industry?

I. Perfect Competition, Monopoly, Oligopoly, Monopolistic Competition

II. Perfect Competition, Monopolistic Competition, Oligopoly, Monopoly

III. Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition, Oligopoly, Perfect Competition

IV. Monopoly, Oligopoly, Perfect Competition, Monopolistic Competition

16. A monopoly maximizes profits or minimizes losses in the short-run by:

A. Setting price equal to marginal cost.

B. Producing output at the level where ATC is minimized.

C. Producing output at the level where P = AVC.

D. Producing output at the level where MR = MC.

17. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the existence of a monopoly?

A. Patents that protect the holder

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In 2016, the USA has which type of economic system?

Select one:

a. Pure capitalism

b. Pure communism

c. Mixed (Socialist) system

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If an economic system has no economic role for government and all resources are privately controlled and all production and distribution decisions of goods, services, and income are in the hands of private individuals, this economic system is a

Select one:

a. Pure capitalism

b. Pure Communism

c. Mixed (Socialist) system

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Money sitting in a savings account is which kind of variable?

Select one:

a. Stock

b. Flow

c. Fixed

d. Variable

Graphically, the producer surplus is measured as the area:

a. under the demand curve and above the actual price.

b. above the supply curve and above the actual price.

c. under the demand curve and below the actual price.

d. above the supply curve and below the actual price.

1. A government-set price floor on a product

B. will drive resources away from the production of the product.

C. will attract more resources towards the production of the product.

D. does not interfere with the rationing function of price in a market system.

F. is intended to benefit the buyers of the product.

2. Graphically, producer surplus is measured as the area

A. above the supply curve and above the actual price.

B. above the supply curve and below the actual price

C. under the demand curve and below the actual price.

D. under the demand curve and above the actual price.

3. When supply shifts from S to S1, consumer surplus

A. increases or decreases

B. decreases

C. stays the same

4. Amanda buys a ruby for $330 for which she was willing to pay $340. The minimum acceptable price to the seller, Tony, was $140. Tony experiences a

A. producer surplus of $200 and Tony experiences a consumer surplus of $10.

B. consumer surplus of $670 and Tony experiences a producer surplus of $200.

C. consumer surplus of $10 and Tony experiences a producer surplus of $190.

D. producer surplus of $10 and Tony experiences a consumer surplus of $190.

5. If the price-elasticity coefficient for a good is -.75, the demand for that good is described as

A. elastic.

B. inferior.

C. inelastic.

D. normal.

Human and nonhuman resources are the inputs used to
produce goods and services. true/false

7) Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false, and explain why.

A. Producer surplus tends to fall as the supply curve becomes more elastic.

B. Consumer surplus tends to rise as demand becomes more elastic.

C. The market demand curve indicates the minimum price buyers are willing to pay at each level of production.

D. The market supply curve indicates the minimum price required by sellers as a group to bring forth production.

E. Consumer surplus is the amount that consumers are willing to pay for a given good or service above and beyond the amount actually paid.

Producer surplus is the

minimum amount required by a producer for producing the good

area above the supply curve but below the demand curve

maximum amount a producer can collect from consumers

area above the supply curve but below the market price of the good

select one

Total surplus is the....

A) area below the demand curve and above the market price of the good

B) area above the supply curve but below the demand curve

C) minimum amount consumers will pay for a good

D) area below the market price and above the supply curve

True or False

When income falls, the demand for a normal good shifts to the left.

Human and nonhuman resources are the inputs used to produce goods and services.

Since resources are scarce, society must make choices about what to produce.

Consumers decide what gets produced in Japan.

Microeconomics is the study of aggregate behavior in the economy.