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23 Nov 2019
If Archimedes was correct, the experimentally determined value of the buoyant force should equal the theoretically calculated value. In my case it does not. I came up with a 6.36 % of difference. Why? What could have caused the difference?
If Archimedes was correct, the experimentally determined value of the buoyant force should equal the theoretically calculated value. In my case it does not. I came up with a 6.36 % of difference. Why? What could have caused the difference?
0
answers
0
watching
50
views
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