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During an election campaign, the incumbent argues that he should be reelected because GDP grew by 12% during his term in office. You know that the population grew by 4% over the period and that the GDP deflator increased from 100 to 108 during the past 4 years. You should conclude that:

A. real GDP per person grew by 12% during the term.

B. real GDP per person grew by 8% during the term.

C. real GDP per person was unchanged during the term.

D. real GDP per person decreased by 4% during the term.

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Related questions

QUESTION 31

Suppose that twenty-five years ago a country had nominal GDP of $1,800, a GDP deflator of 150, and a population of 100. Today it has nominal GDP of $2,800, a GDP deflator of 270, and population of 180. What happened to the real GDP per person?

It more than doubled

It increased, but it less than doubled

It was unchanged

It decreased

1 points

QUESTION 32

During a presidential campaign, the incumbent argues that he should be reelected because nominal GDP grew by 12 percent during his 4-year term in office. You know that population grew by 4 percent over the period and that the GDP deflator increased by 6 percent during the past 4 years. You should conclude that real GDP per person

grew by 2%

grew by 6%

grew by 8%

grew by 12%

1 points

QUESTION 33

Suppose today’s CPI is 134.85, and suppose one must spend $986 today to purchase the same basket of goods and services that could be bought for $680 in 1989. Then the CPI in 1989 was

24.27

60.68

93.00

195.53

1 points

QUESTION 34

If your firm’s production function has a decreasing returns to scale and you increase all your inputs by 60%, then your firm's output will

not change

increase, but by less than 60%

increase by 60%

increase by more than 60%

QUESTION 36

Suppose country's nominal GDP tripled, population grew by 40%, and prices doubles over the last 25 year. What happened to nominal GDP per person?

increased by 114%

increased by 93%

increased by 87%

decreased by 69%

1 points

QUESTION 37

A barber shop produces 288 haircuts a day. Each barber in the shop works 8 hours per day and produces the same number of haircuts per hour. If the shop’s productivity is 3 haircuts per hour of labor, then how many barbers does the shop employ?

8

12

16

None of the above is correct

1 points

QUESTION 38

If the nominal interest rate is 11% and the rate of inflation is 6%, then the real interest rate is

-5%

1.67%

5%

11%

1 points

QUESTION 39

Last year real GDP in Greatland was 651 billion and the population was 2.4 million. The year before, real GDP was 460 billion and the population was 1.9 million. What was the growth rate of real GDP per person during the year?

12 percent

10 percent

4 percent

2 percent

1 points

QUESTION 40

If real GDP increases by 40% and the GDP deflator decreases by 10%, then nominal GDP increases by

40%

30%

26%

-10%

1. Which of the following transactions would add to the value of the U.S. GDP?

A. A college student buys a used car.
B. A college student sells her used textbooks back to the bookstore.
C. A grocery store purchases new freezers made in the United States.

D. U.S. citizen buys a new television manufactured in Asia.

2. The growth rate of real GDP:
A. depends on which year is used as the base year.
B. depends on how quickly prices are rising.
C. is always equal to the rate of growth of nominal GDP. D. is always more than the rate of growth of nominal GDP.

3. Which statement is true about GDP?
A. GDP includes the values of all final and intermediate goods and services.
B. Only the products made by American workers are included in the calculation of the US GDP.

C. Sales of old houses and used cars are included in the calculation of GDP for the current year.

D. In the US, GDP is calculated both annually and quarterly.

4. Which statement is true about GDP growth?
A. The GDP deflator is a measure of economic growth.
B. If we want to compare GDP over time, we should always compare real GDP.
C. Most economists choose nominal GDP growth as a single indicator of economic performance.

D. The GDP deflator tells the quantity change of production.

5. Which of the following is a way to compute GDP?

A. add up the wages paid to all workers

B. add up the quantities of all final goods and services
C. add up the market value of all final goods and services

D. add up the rents paid by all tenants

6. A farmer produces oranges and sells them to Fresh Juice, which makes orange juice. The oranges produced by the farmer are called:
A. inventory goods
B. transitory goods

C. final goods
D. intermediate goods

7. Martin, a US citizen, travels to Mexico and buys a newly manufactured motorcycle there. His purchase is included in:

A. both Mexican GDP and US GDP.

B. Mexican GDP, but not in US GDP.

C. US GDP, but not in Mexican GDP.

D. neither Mexican GDP nor US GDP.

8. Which of the following is included in Singapore GDP?

A. The value of production by a Singaporean working in the US.
B. The value of production by an American working in Singapore.
C. The value of production by a Singaporean that crosses the order to work in Malaysia.

D. All of the above are correct.

9. In the equation Y = C + I + G + NX,
A. Y represents the economy's total expenditure.

B. C represents household on durable goods.
C. all of the variables are always positive numbers.

D. All of the above are correct.

10. Consumption consists of spending by households on goods and services, except

purchases of intangible services.

purchases of durable goods.

purchases of new houses.

spending on education.

11. Which of the following is included in government purchase?

A. unemployment benefits a state government pays

B. social security payments the US government makes
C. the services of a US government attorney valued at the cost of her salary

D. All of the above are correct.

12. Transfer payments are:

A. included in GDP because they represent income to individuals.
B. included in GDP because they eventually will be spent on consumption.
C. not included in GDP because they are not payments for currently produced goods or services.

D. not included in GDP because taxes will have to be raised to pay for them.

13. Net exports equal
A. exports plus imports

B. exports minus imports

C. imports minus exports

D.GDP minus imports

14. In the economy of TAMIU in 2015, exports were $200, GDP was $2000, government purchases were $200, imports were $270, and investment was $500. What was TAMIU's consumption in 2015?

A. $830

B. $1230

C. $1370

D. $1770

15. Nominal GDP will increase when

A. prices increase and output increases.
B. prices increase and output decreases.
C. prices decrease and output increases.

D. All of the above are correct.

16. Changes in real GDP reflect:

A. only changes in prices.

B. only changes in the amounts being produced.
C. both changes in prices and changes in the amounts being produced.

D. neither changes in prices nor changes in the amounts being produced.

17. Which of the following is correct?
A. Nominal GDP is always less than real GDP.

B. Nominal GDP is always greater than real GDP.
C. Nominal GDP equals real GDP in the base year.
D. Nominal GDP equals real GDP in all years but the base year.

18. The GDP deflator is the ratio of:

A. real GDP to nominal GDP.

B. real GDP to the inflation rate.
C. real GDP to nominal GDP.
D. nominal GDP to the inflation rate.

19. In 2012 the nominal GDP was $18 billion and the GDP deflator was 120, what was real GDP?
A. $6.7 billion
B. $10 billion

C. $40 billion D. $100 billion

20. In the base year, the GDP deflator is always equal to A. -1
B. 0
C. 2

D. 1

21. GDP does not reflect:

A. the value of leisure.

B. the value of goods and services produced at home.

C. the quality of the environment.
D. All of the above are correct.

22. When economists talk about growth in the economy, they measure that growth as the:

A. absolute change in nominal GDP from one period to another.

B. percentage change in nominal GDP from one period to another.

C. absolute change in real GDP from one period to another.
D. percentage change in real GDP from one period to another.

23. The term economists use to describe a situation in which the economy’s overall price level is rising is:

A. economic growth

B. inflation
C. recession
D. business cycles

Use information from the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA) website, http://www.bea.gov/, answer question 24 and 25.

24. What is the real GDP growth rate in the 4th quarter of 2015 for the United States?

A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%

D. 4%

25. What is the value of real GDP in 1998 for the United States?

A. $11525.9 billion

B. $9089.2 billion

C. $11321.2 billion

D. $8889.7 billion

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

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