Log in
Economics
6
answers
0
watching
84
views

Unionization adds to the cost of hiring labor, thereby decreasing aggregate supply.

All else remaining constant, what will be the long-run impact on the price level and GDP output?

   

inflation & economic growth
   

inflation & no growth
   

inflation & recession
   

deflation & recession
   

deflation & economic growth

Watch
6
answers
0
watching
84
views

For unlimited access to Homework Help, a Homework+ subscription is required.

Unlock all answers

Get 1 free homework help answer.
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Darryn D'Souza
Darryn D'SouzaLv10
22 Feb 2021
Already have an account? Log in
Share

Related textbook solutions

Principles of Economics
2nd Edition, 2017
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172364
Principles of Macroeconomics
2 Edition,
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172388
Principles of Microeconomics
2 Edition,
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172340

Related questions

Question 2

  1. For any given expected inflation rate, short-run aggregate supply curves show the relationship between

    the money supply and growth rate of output.

    inflation and growth rate of output.

    production factors and wages.

    inflation and wages.

1 points

Question 3

  1. Why is the SRAS curve steeper above its intersection with the Solow growth curve?

    Wages are stickier in the upward direction.

    Wages are less sticky in the upward direction.

    Lower inflation will lead to faster growth.

    Employees become less motivated to work during times of unexpected inflation.

1 points

Question 4

  1. What factors triggered the Great Depression?

    decreased consumer spending and tight monetary policy

    decreased investment and increased inflation

    decreased employment and increased money supply

    decreased inflation and increased income taxes

1 points

Question 5

  1. How might changes in the money supply be non-neutral in the short run?

    As the amount of money circulating in the economy changes before prices respond, consumers' purchases change accordingly, which leads producers to change production levels.

    When money supply changes in the short run, it will affect nominal, but not real, variables in the short run.

    As money growth increases at a faster rate, it will cause real GDP to grow at an equally faster rate.

    If producers expect inflation to increase, they will increase supply in order to sell before the arrival of inflation.

1 points

Question 6

  1. For a given nominal interest rate, an increase in deflation will cause the real rate of interest to

    remain relatively constant.

    increase.

    decrease.

    become unpredictable.

    Question 8

    Which of the three price indexes measures the average price level of the largest total number of goods?

    the consumer price index

    the GDP deflator

    the producer price index

    Each price index accomplishes the same task.

    The textbook uses the

1.

In the money market, money supply is determined by the central bank, such as the Fed in the U.S. Because of this, money supply curve is usually vertical in the short run, while the money demand curve is downward sloping. The quantity demanded of money has an inverse relationship with the interest rate, but a direct relationship with both the price level and real GDP. Therefore, when the general price level increases, what will most likely happen?

A. The money demand curve will shift to the right.

B. The money demand curve will shift to the left.

C. Both the interest rate and investment will rise.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C.

3.

Suppose workers become pessimistic about their future employment, which causes them to save more and spend less. If the economy is in the Keynesian range of the aggregate supply curve, then

A. real GDP will fall and the price level will rise.

B. real GDP will rise and the price level will fall.

C. only the real GDP will fall.

D. only the price level will fall.

E. both real GDP and the price level will fall.

5.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the left?

A. The federal government increases spending for highways and bridges.

B. Consumers expect an economic downturn.

C. The federal government increases income taxes.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C.

6.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate supply curve to the left?

A. All workers agree to a reduction in wages.

B. The federal government increases the gasoline taxes.

C. An improvement in technology raises labor productivity.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C

8.

There are also two kinds of deflation, the demand-pull deflation and cost-push deflation. Then which of the following is most likely to be true?

A. An increase in AD will cause the demand-pull deflation.

B. An increase in AS (or SRAS) will cause a cost-push deflation.

C. Economists worry about the demand-pull deflation more than the cost-push deflation.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C.

9.

The short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) can be written as follows: Y = Yf + b (p - pe), where Y = real GDP, Yf = full-employment real GDP, p = price level, pe = expected price level, and b is a positive coefficient. The SRAS can be re-written as p = pe - (1/b)(Yf) + (1/b)(Y). Then which of the following is true?

A. An increase in pe will cause a rightward shift of the SRAS curve.

B. An increase in pe will cause a leftward shift of the SRAS curve.

C. An increase in Yf will cause a leftward shift of the SRAS curve.

D. Only A and C.

E. Only B and C.

Q1. In the short run, an increase in the discount rate usually

a. causes the equilibrium level of real GDP and the price level to fall.

b. leads banks to hold fewer excess reserves.

c. leads to an increase in the price of existing bonds.

d. results in decreases in other interest rates.

Q2. Both Keynesians and monetarists agree that monetary policy works by shifting aggregate supply.

a. true

b. false

Q3. The effect of expansionary monetary policy is to

a. increase real output and decrease the price level.

b. decrease real output and increase the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q4. The price of bonds and the interest rate are

a. unrelated.

b. inversely related.

c. related, but we are not sure how.

d. positively related.

Q5. If the Fed increases the reserve requirement,

a. banks will issue more loans.

b. consumers will save more.

c. banks will issue fewer loans.

d. consumers will save less.

Q6. A central bank that engages in inflation targeting is following a monetary rule.

a. true

b. false

Q7. The Federal Reserve increased the money supply significantly during the Great Depression, but prices continued to fall anyway.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Keynesian theory argues that

a. decreases in the money supply lead to increases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

b. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

c. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which decreases investment which decreases the level of real GDP.

d. increases in the money supply cause consumers to spend more which reduces the unemployment rate and therefore increases real GDP.

Q9. The effect of contractionary monetary policy is to

a. decrease real output and increase the price level.

b. increase real output and decrease the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q10. Keynesian economists believe that monetary policy works through its effect on

a. long-run aggregate supply.

b. the interest rate.

c. consumer confidence.

d. the federal budget deficit.

Q11. An expansionary monetary policy results in lower interest rates, which in turn

a. lead to higher rates of taxation.

b. cause firms to invest more.

c. lead to lower bond prices.

d. cause consumers to save more.

Q12. Contractionary monetary policy is used to combat recessions.

a. true

b. false

Q13. Economic growth can also be defined as the cumulative contribution of the rate of growth of capital, the rate of growth of labor, and the rates of growth of capital and labor productivity.

a. true

b. false

Q14. Small differences in the annual growth rate of a country add up to large differences over time because of compounding.

a. true

b. false

Q15. Economic growth occurs when

a. there is an increase in the inflation rate.

b. there is an increase in the amount of capital.

c. there is an increase in the unemployment rate.

d. the production possibilities curve becomes flatter.

Q16. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Small changes in the annual growth rate amount to a measurable difference in the long-term growth trend of a country.

b. For every country that experiences an increase in its growth rate, there must be another experiencing a decline.

c. A well-defined system of property rights benefits only the wealthy, and consequently it produces income inequality that will stifle economic growth.

d. Restricting imports will enhance a country's economic growth.

Q17. Economic growth is reflected in

a.

growth in total output.

b. an increase in tax revenue.

c. increases in the level of employment.

d. increase in per capita real GDP.

Q18. Economic growth is reflected in the production possibilities curve becoming flatter.

a. true

b. false

Q19. Research has shown that the growth of developing countries is most strongly enhanced by

a. providing a good secondary education.

b. increasing the money supply.

c. providing incentives to have large families.

d. providing colleges and universities.

Q20. Which of the following is the most important factor affecting economic growth?

a. the rate of interest

b. the exchange rate

c. the price level

d. the rate of saving

Q21. Secondary schooling makes measurable contributions to economic growth in developing countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Poorly defined property rights inhibit economic growth.

a. true

b. false

Q23. Which one of the following helps preserve incentives to develop new technologies?

a. tariffs

b. income taxes

c. patents

d. quantity restrictions on imports

Q24. Studies indicate that

a. there is no relationship between economic growth and saving.

b. there is a negative relationship between economic growth and saving.

c. there is a positive relationship between economic growth and saving.

d. saving does not contribute to capital formation.

Q25. The European Union is

a. an organization established to resolve trade disputes among member nations.

b. a group of countries that impose tariffs on one another's agricultural goods.

c. a restricted trade zone.

d. a common market.

Q26. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. Trade of goods facilitates the exchange of intellectual property as well.

b. The end result of trade is that richer countries take advantage of poorer ones.

c. A country enjoys an absolute advantage if it can produce a good with fewer resources than any other country can.

d. Countries that engage in trade will end up specializing according to their own comparative advantage.

Q27. If there are two goods and two countries, then one country can have

a. an absolute advantage in both goods but a comparative advantage in only one good.

b. an absolute advantage in both goods and a comparative advantage in both goods.

c. an absolute advantage in neither good and a comparative advantage in both goods.

d. an absolute advantage in one good, an absolute disadvantage in the other good, and a comparative advantage in neither.

Q28. An infant industry is one in which

a. the firms are too new and too small to compete internationally.

b. no country has a comparative advantage.

c. no country has an absolute advantage.

d. the products are only consumed domestically.

Q29. The European Union is an example of a common market.

a. true

b. false

Q30. An import quota will make the supply curve for the imported good

a. unitary elastic.

b. negatively sloped.

c. perfectly elastic.

d. perfectly inelastic.

Q31. If the infant-industry argument is used to protect an industry that has already matured then

a. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is below the world price.

b. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is above the world price.

c. no one loses.

d. stockholders lose because the firm cannot compete with other firms.

Q32. Protection should be withdrawn from an infant-industry when the companies in the industry

a. reach a sufficient size to compete with foreign firms.

b. become profitable.

c. are listed on the domestic stock exchange.

d. double their sales revenues.

Q33. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Exporters benefit from trade and importers do not.

b. Free trade harms domestic producers of goods that face import competition.

c. Consumers benefit from trade and producers do not.

d. Everyone benefits from free trade in the short run.

Q34. In the United States today, imports are over

a. 22 percent of GDP.

b. 26 percent of GDP.

c. 14 percent of GDP.

d. 18 percent of GDP.

Q35. Table 16.6

Product Country X Country Y

Gallons of Ice Cream 2,000 1,000

Yards of Textiles 6,000 2,000

Table 16.6 shows the combinations of quantities of two goods, gallons of ice cream and yards of textiles, that can be produced with all of the resources available in two countries, X and Y.

Refer to Table 16.6. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Country X has a lower opportunity cost of producing ice cream than does Country Y.

b. Country Y has a comparative advantage in producing textiles.

c. Country X has a comparative advantage in producing ice cream.

d. In Country X, the opportunity cost of producing a gallon of ice cream is three yards of textiles.

Q36. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. The table shows the production possibilities of cookies and coffee in Alpha and Beta measured in tons. In Alpha the domestic cost of 1 ton of cookies

a. is 5 tons of coffee.

b. changes with the level of coffee production.

c. changes with the level of cookie production.

d. averages 4 tons of coffee.

Q37. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. If these two countries, Alpha and Beta, specialize based on comparative advantage

a. Beta will specialize in producing both items.

b. Alpha will specialize in cookies, and Beta will specialize in coffee production.

c. Alpha will specialize in coffee, and Beta will specialize in cookies.

d. Alpha will specialize in producing both items.

Q38. A country is made richer by its exports and poorer by its imports.

a. true

b. false

Q39. The demand for Japanese yen will increase when

a. Japan becomes more productive relative to the United States.

b. Americans change preferences in favor of domestically produced goods.

c. America is perceived as more stable politically and economically than Japan.

d. real interest rates in Japan fall.

Q40. If labor productivity improves in India relative to other countries,

a. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its appreciation.

b. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its depreciation.

c. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its depreciation.

d. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its appreciation.

Q41. Assume that there is an increased demand in the United States for Australian wines. If all other factors are held constant, this will result in

a. an appreciation of the Australian dollar.

b. a movement along the demand curve for Australian wine.

c. a decrease in the supply of U.S. dollars in the foreign exchange market.

d. an appreciation of the U.S. dollar.

Q42. Capital account transactions occur

a. when a U.S. citizen purchases stock in a U.S. corporation.

b. because of foreign investments.

c. when you move money from one U.S. bank to another U.S. bank.

d. when a U.S. company purchases goods from a foreign company.

Q43. When a country intervenes in foreign currency markets to maintain a fixed exchange rate

a. it is engaged in hedging.

b. it increases the foreign exchange risk faced by its citizens.

c. it does so by using its foreign exchange reserves.

d. it smoothes out fluctuations in the level of business activity.

Q44. An increase in the U.S. demand for Japanese yen causes

a. an increase in the dollar-price of yen.

b. an increase in the demand for U.S. goods.

c. an increase in the yen-price of dollars.

d. a decrease in the supply of yen.

Q45. Other factors held constant, a rise in the price level in Japan that exceeds the rise in the price level in other countries will most likely result in

a. a decrease in the supply of the Japanese yen.

b. an increase in the supply of Japanese goods.

c. a depreciation of the dollar.

d. a decline in the level of Japanese exports.

Q46. The fact that the United States has a trade deficit means that

a. U.S. workers cannot compete with workers overseas.

b. the United States has a surplus in its capital account.

c. interest rates in the United States are low compared to the world average.

d. the United States has a deficit in its capital account.

Q47. Which of the following statements is true about the role of gifts given to U.S. citizens from foreigners?

a. Gifts are only included in the balance of payments if the gift is over $1,000,000.

b. Gifts given to U.S. citizens are not included in the balance of payments, but gifts given to foreigners are included as deficit items.

c. Gifts are included in the balance of payments.

d. Gifts are not included in the balance of payments.

Q48. Every transaction concerning the exportation of American goods constitutes a

a. demand for foreign currency and a supply of dollars.

b. demand for dollars, with no effect on markets for foreign currencies.

c. supply of foreign currency, with no effect on the market for dollars.

d. supply of foreign currency and demand for dollars.

Q49. If the capital account is in surplus, the current account will be in deficit.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The balance of payments consists of the

a. capital account, official reserve transactions account, and recent account.

b. current account, official reserve transactions account, and monetary account.

c. current account, capital account, and official reserve transactions account.

d. current account, capital account, and gold flows.

Weekly leaderboard

Home
Homework Help 3,900,000
Economics 400,000
Start filling in the gaps now
Log in