ADMS 2610 Lecture 10: Chapter 24

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taupedog644

23 May 2017

School

York University

Department

Administrative Studies

Course

ADMS 2610

Professor

Rudi Lof

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Document Summary

Lease: an agreement that constitutes a grant of possession of property for a fixed term in return for the payment of rent. Tenancy: a relationship between parties governed by a lease. Exists between 2 parties unless either or both assign their interest in the land. Two concurrent interests in land: leasehold tenant"s right to exclusive possession, reversion - the return of the right to possession to the landlord at the end of the lease. At expiration of lease, the two interests (possession and title) merge. An interest in land, so anything attached to land is part of leasehold interest. Commercial leases: negotiated and terms set forth in the contract. Type of remedy of landlord depends on type of breach. Most common breach is failure to pay rent. Commercial lease breach by landlord does not allow tenant to withhold payment of rent as a general rule. Residential lease certain breaches by landlord does allow tenant to withhold payment of rent.

Related Questions

On January 1, 2013, NRC Credit Corporation leased equipment toBrand Services under a direct financing lease designed to earn NRCa 12% rate of return for providing long-term financing. The leaseagreement specified:

Twelve annual payments of $64,000 (including executory costs)beginning January 1, 2013, the inception of the lease and eachDecember 31 thereafter through 2021.

The estimated useful life of the leased equipment is 12 yearswith no residual value. Its cost to NRC was $403,080.

The leasequalifies as a capital lease to Brand.

A 12-year service agreement with Quality Maintenance Company wasnegotiated to provide maintenance of the equipment as required.Payments of $5,900 per year are specified, beginning January 1,2013. NRC was to pay this executory cost as incurred, but leasepayments reflect this expenditure.

A partial amortization schedule, appropriate for boththe lessee and lessor, follows

Payments

Effective
Interest

Decrease in
Balance

Outstanding
Balance

(12% Ã Outstanding balance)

403,080

1/1/13

58,100

344,980

12/31/13

58,100

0.12

(344,980

)

41,398

16,702

328,278

12/31/14

58,100

0.12

(328,278

)

39,393

18,707

309,571

Assume the contract specified that NRC (the lessor) wasto pay, not only the $5,900 maintenance fees, but also insurance of$790 per year, and was to receive a $340 management fee forfacilitating service and paying executory costs. The lesseeâs leasepayments were increased to include an amount sufficient toreimburse executory costs plus NRCâs fee.

Required:

Prepare the appropriate entries for both the lessee andlessor to record the second lease payment, executory costs, anddepreciation (straight line) on December 31, 2013. (If no entry isrequired for a particular transaction, select "No journal entryrequired" in the first account field. Enter your answers in wholedollars.)

1. Record the cash payment.

2. Record the depreciation expense.

3. Record the cash received.

Journal Accounts List:

No journal entry required

Accretion revenue

Accumulated depreciation

Airplanes

Amortization expense

Building

Cash

Cost of goods sold

Deferred gain on sale-leaseback

Deferred initial direct cost

Deferred profit

Deferred rent expense payable

Depreciation expense

Gain on sale-leaseback

Insurance premium payable

Interest expense

Interest payable

Interest receivable

Interest revenue

Inventory of equipment

Lease expense

Lease payable

Lease receivable

Lease revenue

Leased building

Leased equipment

Leased land

Leased property

Leasehold improvements

Loss on leased assets

Loss on residual value guarantee

Maintenance fee payable

Notes payable

Prepaid maintenance

Prepaid rent

Profit

Rent expense

Rent revenue

Residual asset

Right-of-use equipment

Sales revenue

Selling expense

Unearned miscellaneous revenue

Unearned rent revenue

grayhorse935

Learning Activity 1

This assignment focuses on UCC contracts.

Scenario: Landmark Company is a US-based business that sells iron tables to retailers in the US. The tables are purchased from individual metalsmiths, from US wholesale suppliers, and suppliers in Mexico.

Landmark ordered by telephone 300 iron tables to be shipped by April 1 from Metal Elements, Inc., another US company. No other sales terms were discussed. Landmark followed up the telephone call with an email to Metal Elements confirming the number of tables in the order and the delivery date, but did not discuss price. Metal Elements did not respond but shipped the tables as ordered to Landmark by April 1 at a price of $700 each, totaling $210,000.

Landmarkâs new Director of Purchasing, Payton Mann, is concerned about whether Landmark is bound to accept the tables from Metal Elements since Landmark had no formal acceptance or written correspondence Metal Elements. Payton is also concerned about the price of the tables which is higher than she had expected to pay. She emails you, one of the Landmark owners, to explain the situation with Metal Elements and to seek your advice about the sales.

Respond to Payton via email including:

A. An analysis and explanation of whether this is a valid contract between Landmark and Metal Elements, and why or why not; suggest to Payton how this situation should be handled;

B. For Paytonâs future information, include in the email a hypothetical situation in which the same facts apply as in the Landmark â Metal Elements order except that, upon inspection, fifty of the tables delivered from Metal Elements were damaged; provide an analysis of Landmarkâs options and suggestions for resolving this situation with Metal Elements.

Sources: Saylor: Advanced Business Law and the Legal Environment

Chapter 8: Formation of Sales and Lease Contracts, Uniform Commercial Code, Contracts for Sale of International Goods (CISG)

Chapter 9: Title, Risk and Insurable Interest

Chapter 10: Performance, Breach of Sales Contracts and Remedies

Chapter 11: Sections 11.1-11.7 (Warranties and Product Liability)

Week 5 Overview

SALES AND LEASE CONTRACTS

Formation of Sales and Lease Contracts, Uniform Commercial Code, Contracts for Sale of International Goods (CISG)

Introduction: Contracts for the sale and lease of goods are based primarily on the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), rather than common law contract principles. UCC Article 2 and Article 2A govern contract formation for the sale and lease of goods. The goal of the UCC is to provide a relatively simple, straightforward guide to commercial transactions without the formality and inflexibility required to validly form other types of contracts. The UCC has been adopted in all states; Louisiana has not adopted Articles 2 and 2A. Because globalization has increased the scope and number of international sales transactions, the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG) is a model uniform law that applies for those nations that have adopted it.

Title, Risk, and Insurable Interest

Introduction: The UCC addresses and clarifies the concepts of identification of specific goods to a contract, when risk of loss for goods passes from a seller to a buyer, and which party to a sales contract holds an insurable interest in goods. Under the UCC, typically title and risk of loss for the goods in a specific transaction pass from a seller or lessor to a buyer or lessee according to specific terms in the contract between the parties. Parties to sales and lease agreements often have insurance to protect against damage, loss, or destruction of goods.

Performance, Breach of Sales Contracts, Remedies

Introduction: Under a sales or lease contract subject to the UCC, the seller or lessor has the basic duty to transfer and deliver the goods according to the contract terms, and the buyer or lessee has the basic duty to accept and pay for the goods. Parties may also be bound to implied terms based on customs within an industry, or based on prior contracts and dealings between the parties. When a contract is breached, the non-breaching party has available remedies under the law, such as retaining the goods or requiring the breaching party to perform under the contract. As with common law contract principles, remedies are designed to put the non-breaching party in essentially the same position as if the contract had not been breached.

Warranties and Product Liability

Introduction: A warranty is a promise, or guarantee, by a seller or lessor that certain facts are true of the goods being sold or leased. Types of warranties include (1) warranties of title guaranteeing that the goods have clear and valid title, (2) express warranties promising specific facts about the goods, and (3) implied warranties of merchantability, or fitness for a particular purpose. A warranty creates a legal duty for the seller or lessor; a non-breaching party can recover damages for breach of warranty(ies). Because warranties are associated with the sale or lease of products, breach of warranty claims are a part of product liability claims and manufacturers and sellers of goods can be held liable for breach of warranty for defective products. Warranties are subject to regulation under the UCC, product liability tort law, contract law, and the Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act.

Comparison of Common Law vs. UCC Contracts

Introduction: Common law contract principles are stringent, specific, relatively rigid and rules-laden, and require clarity in the formation and performance of agreements. Common law contract rules focus on protecting the rights and interests of parties to an agreement. UCC contract principles are more flexible, looser, permit implied terms in agreements, focus on âkeeping the deal togetherâ, and expediting business transactions. The UCC rules rely on prior dealings between the parties, customs within an industry, and reasonableness to complete contracts that may have omitted or implied terms. Both common law and UCC principles are based on fairness for the parties, and provide remedies, such as compensatory damages or specific performance, for contract breach. The goal of remedies for breach under both common law and the UCC contracts is to restore the non-breaching party to essentially the same position as if there had been no breach.

QUESTION 1

In the lease versus buy decision, leasing is often preferable

	A.	because the lessee owns the property at the end of the least term.
	B.	because lease obligations do not affect the firm's risk as seen by investors.
	C.	because, generally, no down payment is required, and there are no indirect interest costs.
	D.	because it has no effect on the firm's ability to borrow to make other investments.
	E.	because the lessee may have greater flexibility in abandoning the project in which the leased property is used than if the lessee bought and owned the asset.

2 points

QUESTION 2

The tighter the probability distribution of its expected future returns, the greater the risk of a given investment as measured by its standard deviation.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 3

Ratio analysis involves analyzing financial statements in order to appraise a firm's financial position and strength.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If the returns on two stocks are perfectly positively correlated (i.e., the correlation coefficient is +1.0) and these stocks have identical standard deviations, an equally weighted portfolio of the two stocks will have a standard deviation that is less than that of the individual stocks.
	B.	If a stock has a negative beta, its expected return must be negative.
	C.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have less market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5.
	D.	According to the CAPM, stocks with higher standard deviations of returns must also have higher expected returns.
	E.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have more market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5, assuming that the stock's beta was correctly calculated and is stable.

2 points

QUESTION 5

Many leases written today combine the features of operating and financial leases. Such leases are often called "combination leases."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 6

The owner of a convertible bond owns, in effect, both a bond and a call option.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 7

If a firm raises capital by selling new bonds, it is called the "issuing firm," and the coupon rate is generally set equal to the required rate on bonds of equal risk.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

	A.	Warrants can sometimes be detached and traded separately from the debt with which they were issued, but this is unusual.
	B.	One important difference between warrants and convertibles is that convertibles bring in additional funds when they are converted, but exercising warrants does not bring in any additional funds.
	C.	The coupon rate on convertible debt is normally set below the coupon rate that would be set on otherwise similar straight debt even though investing in convertibles is more risky than investing in straight debt.
	D.	Warrants have an option feature but convertibles do not.
	E.	The value of a warrant to buy a safe, stable stock should exceed the value of a warrant to buy a risky, volatile stock, other things held constant.

2 points

QUESTION 9

Because of improvements in forecasting techniques, estimating the cash flows associated with a project has become the easiest step in the capital budgeting process.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 10

The form of organization for a business is not an important issue, as this decision has very little effect on the income and wealth of the firm's owners.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 11

Two important issues in corporate governance are (1) the rules that cover the board's ability to fire the CEO and (2) the rules that cover the CEO's ability to remove members of the board.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 12

The "preferred" feature of preferred stock means that it normally will provide a higher expected return than will common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 13

If an investment project would make use of land which the firm currently owns, the project should be charged with the opportunity cost of the land.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 14

Operating leases help to shift the risk of obsolescence from the user to the lessor.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 15

Starting to invest early for retirement increases the benefits of compound interest.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 16

Market risk refers to the tendency of a stock to move with the general stock market. A stock with above-average market risk will tend to be more volatile than an average stock, and its beta will be greater than 1.0.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 17

Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 18

An option is a contract that gives its holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price within a specified period of time.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 19

The optimal distribution policy strikes that balance between current dividends and capital gains that maximizes the firm's stock price.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 20

If the current price of a stock is below the strike price, then an option to buy the stock is worthless and will have a zero value.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 21

The desire for floating-rate bonds, and consequently their increased usage, arose out of the experience of the early 1980s, when inflation pushed interest rates up to very high levels and thus caused sharp declines in the prices of outstanding bonds.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 22

Taylor Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept?

	A.	Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%.
	B.	Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%.
	C.	None of the projects should be accepted.
	D.	All of the projects should be accepted.
	E.	Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.

2 points

QUESTION 23

To finance the construction of a new plant, Pietersen Corporation must raise an additional $10,000,000 of equity capital through the sale of common stock. The firm currently has an EPS of $5.40 and a P/E ratio of 10, with 1,200,000 shares outstanding. If the firm wants its ex-rights price to be $50, what subscription price must it set on the new shares?

	A.	$39.28
	B.	$50.00
	C.	$29.55
	D.	$41.80
	E.	$33.78

2 points

QUESTION 24

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming positive interest rates and holding other things constant?

	A.	A 30-year, $150,000 amortized mortgage will have larger monthly payments than an otherwise similar 20-year mortgage.
	B.	A bank loan's nominal interest rate will always be equal to or less than its effective annual rate.
	C.	The present value of a 5-year, $250 annuity due will be lower than the PV of a similar ordinary annuity.
	D.	If an investment pays 10% interest, compounded annually, its effective annual rate will be less than 10%.
	E.	Banks A and B offer the same nominal annual rate of interest, but A pays interest quarterly and B pays semiannually. Deposits in Bank B will provide the higher future value if you leave your funds on deposit.

2 points

QUESTION 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in inventories is reported as a use of cash.
	B.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts receivable is reported as a use of cash.
	C.	In the statement of cash flows, depreciation charges are reported as a use of cash.
	D.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts payable is reported as a use of cash.
	E.	Dividends do not show up in the statement of cash flows because dividends are considered to be a financing activity, not an operating activity.

2 points

QUESTION 26

The term "additional funds needed (AFN)" is generally defined as follows:

	A.	A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each balance sheet account is held constant.
	B.	Funds that are obtained automatically from routine business transactions.
	C.	Funds that a firm must raise externally from non-spontaneous sources, i.e., by borrowing or by selling new stock to support operations.
	D.	The amount of internally generated cash in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to acquire the new assets needed to support growth.
	E.	The amount of assets required per dollar of sales.

2 points

QUESTION 27

The cash flows associated with common stock are more difficult to estimate than those related to bonds because stock has a residual claim against the company versus a contractual obligation for a bond.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 28

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV.
	B.	Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.
	C.	Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not.
	D.	An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase.
	E.	An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality.

2 points

QUESTION 29

Time lines can be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 30

A warrant is an option, and as such it cannot be used as a "sweetener."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 31

BLW Corporation is considering the terms to be set on the options it plans to issue to its executives. Which of the following actions would decrease the value of the options, other things held constant?

	A.	The life of the option is increased, i.e., the time until it expires is lengthened.
	B.	The exercise price of the option is increased.
	C.	The Federal Reserve takes actions that increase the risk-free rate.
	D.	BLW's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance).
	E.	BLW's stock price suddenly increases.

2 points

QUESTION 32

Convertible debentures for Kulik Corporation were issued at their $1,000 par value in 2012. At any time prior to maturity on February 1, 2032, a debenture holder can exchange a bond for 25 shares of common stock. What is the conversion price, Pc?

	A.	$48.62
	B.	$40.00
	C.	$42.00
	D.	$46.31
	E.	$44.10

2 points

QUESTION 33

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $0.75 at the end of the year. The required rate of return is rs = 10.5%, and the expected constant growth rate is g = 6.4%. What is the stock's current price?

	A.	$18.29
	B.	$17.39
	C.	$19.22
	D.	$18.75
	E.	$17.84

2 points

QUESTION 34

If a firm's goal is to maximize its earnings per share, this is the best way to maximize the price of the common stock and thus shareholders' wealth.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 35

The common stock of Southern Airlines currently sells for $33, and its 8% convertible debentures (issued at par, or $1,000) sell for $850. Each debenture can be converted into 25 shares of common stock at any time before 2025. What is the conversion value of the bond?

	A.	$783.75
	B.	$744.56
	C.	$825.00
	D.	$866.25
	E.	$707.33

2 points

QUESTION 36

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If interest rates increase, the price of a 10-year coupon bond will decline by a greater percentage than the price of a 10-year zero coupon bond.
	B.	If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its annual coupon, then the bond will trade at a premium.
	C.	If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	D.	If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	E.	If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, its price will continue to decline until it reaches its par value at maturity.

2 points

QUESTION 37

A proxy is a document giving one party the authority to act for another party, including the power to vote shares of common stock. Proxies can be important tools relating to control of firms.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 38

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.
	B.	If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV.
	C.	If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV.
	D.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.
	E.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV.

2 points

QUESTION 39

A firm's AFN must come from external sources. Typical sources include short-term bank loans, long-term bonds, preferred stock, and common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 40

Which of the following could explain why a business might choose to operate as a corporation rather than as a sole proprietorship or a partnership?

	A.	Less of a corporation's income is generally subjected to taxes than would be true if the firm were a partnership.
	B.	Corporate shareholders escape liability for the firm's debts, but this factor may be offset by the tax disadvantages of the corporate form of organization.
	C.	Corporations generally find it relatively difficult to raise large amounts of capital.
	D.	Corporations generally face relatively few regulations.
	E.	Corporate investors are exposed to unlimited liability.

2 points

QUESTION 41

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 42

Amram Company's current ratio is 1.9. Considered alone, which of the following actions would reduce the company's current ratio?

	A.	Use cash to reduce accruals.
	B.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce long-term debt.
	C.	Use cash to reduce accounts payable.
	D.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce accruals.
	E.	Use cash to reduce short-term notes payable.

2 points

QUESTION 43

ESOPs were originally designed to help improve worker productivity, but today they are also used to help prevent hostile takeovers.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 44

High current and quick ratios always indicate that a firm is managing its liquidity position well.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 45

A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC).

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 46

"Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 47

Heavy use of off-balance sheet lease financing will tend to

	A.	affect a company's cash flows but not its degree of risk.
	B.	make a company appear less risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will appear lower.
	C.	make a company appear more risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will be increased.
	D.	affect the lessee's cash flows but only due to tax effects.
	E.	have no effect on either cash flows or risk because the cash flows are already reflected in the income statement.

2 points

QUESTION 48

As a firm's sales grow, its current assets also tend to increase. For instance, as sales increase, the firm's inventories generally increase, and purchases of inventories result in more accounts payable. Thus, spontaneous liabilities that reduce AFN arise from transactions brought on by sales increases.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 49

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal total liabilities and equity.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 50

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, balance sheet, statement of cash flows, and statement of stockholders' equity.

True

False

ADMS 2610 Lecture 10: Chapter 24

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