ECC4650 Lecture Notes - Allocative Efficiency, Natural Monopoly, Demand Curve

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Activity : 2 point(s)

If P = $8 and MC = $5 + 0. 2Q, the competitive firm's profit-maximizing level of output is:

5

0.2

8

15

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the long run, firms will exit a perfectly competitive industry if:

excess profits exceed zero.

excess profits are less than zero.

total profit equals zero.

excess profits equal zero.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In long-run equilibrium, monopoly prices are set at a level where:

price exceeds marginal revenue.

industry demand equals industry supply.

industry demand is less than industry supply.

price exceeds average revenue.

Activity : 1 point(s)

The kinked demand curve theory of oligopoly assumes that rival firms:

react to price increases.

react to price increases and decreases.

do not react to price changes.

react to price decreases.

Activity : 1 point(s)

In oligopoly markets, the market demand curve is:

upward sloping.

downward sloping.

horizontal.

vertical.

Activity : 2 point(s)

The level of competition in a given market tends to increase if:

minimum efficient scale of firms increases.

the number of substitutes increases.

significant barriers to exit are imposed.

the number of potential entrants decreases.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the short run, the:

firm has complete flexibility with respect to input use.

availability of all inputs is fixed.

operating period is longer than the planning period.

availability of at least one input is fixed.

Activity : 1 point(s)

In both monopolistic competition and oligopoly markets:

there is easy entry and exit.

consumers perceive differences among the products of various competitors.

economic profits may be earned in the long run.

there are many sellers.

Activity : 1 point(s)

In oligopoly equilibrium:

MC = AC

MC > AC

MR = MC

MC < AC

Activity : 2 point(s)

A firm will earn normal profits when price:

equals average total cost.

equals average variable cost.

equals marginal cost.

exceeds minimum average total cost.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Economic costs include both explicit and implicit cost. When analyzing costs the next-best use of a given asset is called:

current cost.

replacement cost.

historical cost

opportunity cost.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In a perfectly competitive market:

sellers and buyers have perfect information.

entry and exit are difficult.

c. sellers produce similar, but not identical products.

each seller can affect the market price by changing output.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In competitive market equilibrium, the firm's:

MR = MC and P > AR

MR = MC and P > AC

AR = AC and MR > MC

P = MR = AR = AC = MC

Activity : 1 point(s)

A firm should increase advertising if the net marginal revenue derived is:

equal to the marginal cost of advertising.

greater than the marginal cost of advertising.

greater than zero.

less than the marginal cost of advertising.

Activity : 2 point(s)

For a firm in perfectly competitive market equilibrium:

a replacement cost.

an implicit cost.

an explicit cost.

an opportunity cost.

Activity : 1 point(s)

In a monopolistically competitive industry, firms:

offer products that are not perfect substitutes.

make decisions in light of expected reactions from other firms.

set price equal to marginal cost.

are price takers.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Fixed costs include:

variable labor expenses.

output-related energy costs.

output-related raw material costs.

variable interest costs for borrowed capital.

Activity : 2 point(s)

A monopolist maximizes profits by producing a level of output when:

P = AC

P > MC

P < MC

P = MC

Activity : 2 point(s)

The demand curve for a unique product without substitutes is:

upward sloping.

downward sloping.

horizontal.

vertical.

Activity : 2 point(s)

At the point of minimum Average Variable Cost:

historical cost.

incremental cost.

current cost.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the decision process, management should ignore:

implicit costs.

historical costs.

sunk costs.

incremental costs.

Activity : 1 point(s)

At the profit maximizing level of output for a monopolist:

P = AR and AR = AC

P = MC and MR > MC

P = MR and AC = MC

P > MC and MR = MC

Activity : 2 point(s)

In perfectly competitive markets, profits are maximized when:

MC=AC

P>AC

MR=MC

MR=P

Activity : 2 point(s)

Graphically, competitive market supply is measured by the:

vertical difference of competitor demand curves.

vertical sum of competitor demand curves.

horizontal difference of competitor MC curves.

horizontal sum of competitor MC curves.

Activity : 2 point(s)

For a firm in perfectly competitive market equilibrium:

MR < AR

P > AC

P > MR

P = MC

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the long run, firms will offer supply at the point where P = MR = MC if:

MC is rising.

MC is falling.

MC is constant.

P > AC

Activity : 2 point(s)

The firm demand curve in a competitive market is:

upward sloping.

downward sloping.

horizontal.

vertical.

Activity : 1 point(s)

Monopolistic competition is characterized by:

homogeneous products.

barriers to entry and exit.

perfect dissemination of information.

few buyers and sellers.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Marginal cost equals:

average variable cost at its maximum point.

the change in total fixed cost divided by the change in quantity.

the change in total variable cost divided by the change in quantity.

total cost divided by quantity.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will shut down and produce nothing if:

excess profits equal zero.

total cost exceeds total revenue.

total variable cost exceeds total revenue.

the market price falls below the minimum average total cost.

Activity : 2 point(s)

For a monopoly in equilibrium:

MR = MC

MC ≤ AC

MR ≤ AC

P ≥ AC

Activity : 2 point(s)

When profits are maximized in a competitive market, average cost is always:

rising.

falling.

constant.

none of these.

Activity : 2 point(s)

So long as P > AVC, the competitive firm's short-run supply curve is equal to:

AVC

P

MC

none of these.

Activity : 1 point(s)

The four-firm concentration ratio will rise following:

a rise in imports.

a fall in imports.

a merger between the two largest firms in the industry.

small firm entry.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In oligopoly markets, the market demand curve is:

point on the short-run marginal cost curve.

short-run average cost of production.

long-run average cost of production.

point on the short-run average cost curve.

Activity : 2 point(s)

The following market cannot be described as perfectly competitive:

the unskilled labor market.

the milk market.

discount retailing.

the agricultural grain markets.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the long run, the:

availability of at least one input is fixed.

firm's operating decisions are typically constrained by prior capital expenditures.

availability of all but one input is fixed.

firm has complete flexibility with respect to input use.

Activity : 1 point(s)

The industry supply curve is derived through the horizontal summation of firm:

average cost curves.

marginal revenue curves.

marginal cost curves.

demand curves.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Price and product quality competition tends to be vigorous when:

entry barriers are low.

potential entrants are few.

product quality information is scarce.

the number of active sellers is few.

Activity : 1 point(s)

A perfectly functioning cartel results in:

oligopoly.

monopoly.

perfect competition.

monopolistic competition.

Activity : 1 point(s)

When prices in monopolistically competitive markets exceed those in a perfectly competitive equilibrium, this difference is the cost of:

information.

market power.

inefficiency.

product differentiation.

Activity : 1 point(s)

In the short run, a monopolist will:

shut down if price equals average total cost.

shut down if price is less than average total cost.

shut down if price is less than average variable cost.

never shut down.

Activity : 2 point(s)

In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will shut down and produce nothing if:

typically involve multiple units of output.

do not vary across decision alternatives.

come into play when judging the costs of adding a new product line, advertising campaign, production shift, or organization structure.

play a role in determining the optimal course of action.

Activity : 2 point(s)

At the point of minimum AVC:

MC is falling.

MC is constant.

MC is rising.

MC = AVC.

Activity : 2 point(s)

A monopsony is a market with:

many sellers.

one buyer.

many buyers.

one seller.

Activity : 1 point(s)

The demand curve faced by a firm in a monopolistically competitive industry is:

the downward sloping industry demand curve.

downward sloping.

more elastic than the perfectly competitive firm's demand curve.

horizontal.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Perfect competition always prevails in markets with:

few buyers and sellers.

many buyers and sellers.

an even balance of power between sellers and buyers.

a single buyer.

Activity : 2 point(s)

If the slope of a long-run total cost function decreases as output increases, the firm's underlying production function exhibits:

constant returns to scale.

decreasing returns to scale.

decreasing returns to a factor input.

increasing returns to scale.

Activity : 2 point(s)

Average cost declines as output expands in a production process with:

constant returns to scale.

decreasing returns to scale.

decreasing returns to a factor input.

increasing returns to scale.

Activity : 2 point(s)

If the productivity of variable factors is decreasing in the short-run:

marginal cost must increase as output increases.

average cost must decrease as output increases.

average cost must increase as output increases.

marginal cost must decrease as output increases.

1).

A consumer spends more time searching for a good when her reservation price is:

increased.

reduced.

fixed.

None of the statements is correct.

2).

In the game shown below, firms 1 and 2 must independently decide whether to charge high or low prices.



Which of the following are Nash equilibrium payoffs in the one-shot game?

(0, 0)

(5, -5)

(-5, 5)

(10, 10)

3).

A risk-neutral individual would:

prefer $5 with certainty to a risky prospect with the expected value of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with an expected value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

be indifferent between a risky prospect with an expect value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with the expected value of $0.50 to $5 with certainty.

4).

Snowpeak Ski Resort offers a price for a lift ticket that is barely over its marginal cost, but the high equipment rental fee keeps generating big profits. Which pricing strategy is the management using?

Price discrimination

Two-part pricing

Commodity bundling

Cross-subsidization

5).

The short run is defined as the time frame:

in which there are no fixed factors of production.

in which there are fixed factors of production.

less than one year.

less than three years.

6).

Fixed costs exist only in:

the long run.

capital-intensive markets.

the short run.

labor-intensive markets.

7).

Top of Form

Non-fed ground beef is an inferior good. In economic booms, grocery managers should:

increase their orders of non-fed ground beef.

reduce their orders of non-fed ground beef.

not change their orders of non-fed ground beef.

neither increase, reduce, nor maintain their current orders for non-fed ground beef.

Bottom of Form

8).

Which of the following pricing strategies is NOT used in markets with special cost and demand structures?

Peak-load pricing

Cross-subsidization

Transfer pricing

Low-price guarantees

9).

A perfectly competitive firm faces a:

perfectly elastic demand function.

perfectly inelastic demand function.

demand function with unitary elasticity.

None of the answers is correct.

10).

The special demand structure that induces a firm to use a cross-subsidization strategy is:

perfect substitution among products.

imperfect substitution among products.

independent demand for products.

interdependent demand for products.

11).

Which of the following factors reduces the need for government involvement in the marketplace?

The presence of externalities

The incentive to rent-seek

The need for public goods

Incomplete information

12).

Which of the following statements is true?

A mineral rights auction is not the same as a common-value auction.

An auctioneer is always indifferent between different kinds of auctions.

The Dutch and first-price, sealed-bid auctions are strategically equivalent.

An English auction always yields lower expected revenues than a second-price, sealed-bid auction.

13).

Which of the following is true concerning negative externalities?

Firms tend to produce more than the efficient level of output.

Society gains because firms do not pay the external costs of production.

Perfect competition is better than monopoly from the viewpoint of society even in the presence of negative externalities.

With negative externalities, a monopoly will always produce an output level less than is socially efficient.

14).

Which of the following is true under monopoly?

P > ATC

P > MC

P = MR

P = ATC

15).

Differentiated goods are NOT a feature of a:

perfectly competitive market.

monopolistically competitive market.

monopolistic market.

perfectly competitive market and monopolistic market.

16).

Producer surplus is measured as the area

below the demand curve and above the market price.

above the demand curve and below the market price.

above the supply curve and below the market price.

below the supply curve and above the market price.

17).

Jaynet spends $25,000 per year on painting supplies and storage space. She recently received two job offers from a famous marketing firm – one offer was for $105,000 per year, and the other was for $85,000. However, she turned both jobs down to continue a painting career. If Jaynet sells 30 paintings per year at a price of $9,000 each:

a. What are her accounting profits?

$

b. What are her economic profits?

$

18).

You are the manager of a monopoly that sells a product to two groups of consumers in different parts of the country. Group 1’s elasticity of demand is -2, while group 2’s is -4. Your marginal cost of producing the product is $40.

a. Determine your optimal markups and prices under third-degree price discrimination.

Instruction: Round your answers to two decimal places.

Markup for group 1:
Price for group 1: $

Markup for group 2:
Price for group 2: $


b. Which of the following are necessary conditions for third-degree price discrimination to enhance profits.

Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for the correct answers and click twice to empty the box for the wrong answers. You must click to select or deselect each option in order to receive full credit.

19).

You are the manager of a firm that receives revenues of $60,000 per year from product X and $80,000 per year from product Y. The own price elasticity of demand for product X is -1.5, and the cross-price elasticity of demand between productY and X is -1.4.

How much will your firm's total revenues (revenues from both products) change if you increase the price of good X by 2 percent?

Instructions: Round your answer to the nearest dollar. Include a minus (-) sign if applicable.

$

Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.