ECO102H1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Takers, Shortage, Chlordiazepoxide

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Chapter 23: output and prices in the short run. Ae curve shifts in response to change in price level. Shift occurs because change in price level affects desired consumption & desired net exports. Relationship between price level & desired consumption has to do with how changes in price level lead to changes in household wealth & thus changes in desired spending. Higher the price level, the less given amount of money can purchase. Rise in domestic price level lowers real value of money holdings. Reduction in price level raises real value of money holdings. Bondholder lent money to issuer of bond & receives payment from issuer when bond matures. Rise in price level leads to reduction in real value of private sector"s wealth. Reduction in wealth leads to decrease in autonomous desired consumption & thus downward shift in ae function. Fall in domestic price level leads to rise in wealth & desired consumption & thus upward shift in ae curve.

Related Questions

Question 1

The higher the capital utilization rate, the greater the depreciation rate.

True

False

Question 2

Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates imply

operating at inconvenient times.

paying overtime to employees operating the machines.

operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive.

All of the above.

Question 3

If the rental price of capital increase, the capital utilization rate

increases.

decreases.

remains the same.

depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect

Question 4

The vacancy rate in the labor market is

the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force.

the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force.

the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs.

the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied.

Question 5

Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.

True

False

Question 6

A decrease in workersâ effective real incomes while they are unemployed will

lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment.

lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.

raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment.

raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment.

Question 7

In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is

zero.

fixed.

Question 8

If the interest rate increases, the real demand for money also increases

True

False

Question 9

Commodity money is money that has value because

of the intrinsic value of the commodity.

it is legal tender.

the government says so.

All of the above.

Question 10

High-powered money is

money held by business for investment.

total currency in circulation plus depository institution deposits at the Fed.

total currency in circulation.

government bonds held by the public and depository institutions.

Question 11

U.S. M1 money includes

currency held by the public.

checkable deposits.

travelerâs checks.

All of the above.

Question 12

U.S. M2 money includes

currency, time deposits, and government bonds.

savings deposits, small time deposits, and private bonds.

checkable deposits, savings deposits, and small time deposits.

retail money market mutual funds, small time deposits, and government bonds.

Question

Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that

money does not pay interest.

money has intrinsic value.

money is a better long term store of value.

All of the above.

Question

If a personâs income doubles, we expect their cash holdings to

Question 15

Real money demand does not change when

nominal GDP changes.

the interest rate changes.

the price level changes.

All of the above.

Question 16

All else constant, the price level rises when the supply of money increases.

True

False

Question 17

If the nominal interest rate were to increase, then

money demand decreases and the price level increases.

money demand increases and the price level decreases.

the money supply and the price level would increase.

the money supply and the price level would decrease.

Question 18

Real money demand is a function of real GDP and the nominal interest rate.

True

False

Question 19

The real return on money is zero.

True

False

Question 20

If the expected inflation rate is 5% and the unexpected inflation rate is 4%, the actual inflation is

-1%

1.25%

Question 21

When the rate of growth of money is constant

the inflation rate equals the growth rate of money.

the nominal interest rate rises.

real money balances are declining.

All of the above.

Question 22

A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes

a decrease in the nominal interest rate.

an increase in money demand.

a decrease in the price level.

All of the above.

Question 23

A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes

an increase in the nominal interest rate.

an increase in money demand.

an increase in the price level.

All of the above.

Question 24

Under price level targeting the money supply becomes

Q 25 During a recession, the interest rate falls tending to cause money demand to rise, but is at least partly offset by real GDP falling tending to cause money demand to fall.

True

False

1.The classical theory of inflation

A. Is also known as the quantity theory of money.

B.was developed by some of the earliest economic thinkers.

C.is used by most modern economists to explain the long-run determinants of the inflation rate.

D.All of the above are correct.

2.To explain the long-run determinants of the price level and the inflation rate, most economists today rely on the

A.quantity theory of money.

B.price-index theory of money.

C.theory of hyperinflation.

D.disequilibrium theory of money and inflation.

3.When the price level rises, the number of dollars needed to buy a representative basket of goods

A.increases, and so the value of money rises.

B.increases, and so the value of money falls.

C.decreases, and so the value of money rises.

D.decreases, and so the value of money falls

4.The supply of money is determined by

A.the price level.

B.the Treasury and Congressional Budget Office.

C.the Federal Reserve System.

D.the demand for money.

6.Economic variables whose values are measured in monetary units are called

A.dichotomous variables.

B.nominal variables.

C.classical variables.

D.real variables.

7.Economic variables whose values are measured in goods are called

A.dichotomous variables.

B.nominal variables.

C.classical variables.

D.real variables.

7.The classical dichotomy refers to the idea that the supply of money

A. is irrelevant for understanding the determinants of nominal and real variables.

B.determines nominal variables, but not real variables.

C.determines real variables, but not nominal variables.

D.is a determinant of both real and nominal variables.

8.According to the classical dichotomy, when the money supply doubles, which of the following also doubles?

A.the price level

B.nominal wages

C.nominal GDP

D.All of the above are correct.

9.Monetary neutrality implies that an increase in the quantity of money will

A.increase employment.

B.increase the price level.

C.increase the incentive to save.

D.not increase any of the above.

10.The velocity of money is

A.the rate at which the Fed puts money into the economy.

B.the same thing as the long-term growth rate of the money supply.

C.the money supply divided by nominal GDP.

D.the average number of times per year a dollar is spent.

11.If M = 4,000, P = 1.5, and Y= 6,000, what is velocity?

A.2.25

B.3.00

C.6.50

D.None of the above is correct.

12.According to the assumptions of the quantity theory of money, if the money supply increases by 5 per cent, then

A.nominal and real GDP would rise by 5 per cent.

B.nominal GDP would rise by 5 per cent; real GDP would be unchanged.

C.nominal GDP would be unchanged; real GDP would rise by 5 per cent.

D.neither nominal GDP nor real GDP would change.

13.The inflation tax refers to

A.the revenue a government creates by printing money.

B.higher inflation which requires more frequent price changes.

C.the idea that other things the same, an increase in the tax rate raises the inflation rate.

D.taxes being indexed for inflation.

14.The inflation tax falls most heavily on

A.those who hold a lot of currency and accounts for a large share of U.S. government revenue.

B.those who hold a lot of currency but accounts for a small share of U.S. government revenue.

C.those who hold little currency and accounts for a large share of U.S. government revenue.

D.those who hold little currency but accounts for a small share of U.S. government revenue.

15.The claim that increases in the growth rate of the money supply increase nominal interest rates but not real interest rates is known as the

A.Friedman Effect.

B.Hume Effect.

C.Fisher Effect.

D.None of the above is correct.

16.The nominal interest rate is 3 per cent and the inflation rate is 2 per cent. What is the real interest rate?

A.6 per cent

B.5 per cent

C.1.5 per cent

D.1 per cent

17.Which of the following helps to explain why the inflation fallacy is a fallacy?

A.Increases in the price level can be created by increases in money demand.

B.Nominal incomes tend to rise at the same time that the price level is rising.

C.As the price level rises, the value of a dollar falls.

D.Inflation only changes nominal variables.

18.The shoe-leather cost of inflation refers to

A.the re distributional effects of unexpected inflation.

B.the time spent searching for low prices when inflation rises.

C.the waste of resources used to maintain lower money holdings.

D.the increased cost to the government of printing more money.

19.Which of the following is an example of menu costs?

A.deciding on new prices

B.printing new price-lists

C.advertising new prices

D.All of the above are examples of menu costs.

20.Which of the following are U.S. taxpayers allowed to adjust for inflation for income taxes?

A.both interest in income and capital gains.

B.interest income but not capital gains.

C.capital gains but net interest income.

D.neither interest income nor capital gains.

21.You put money into an account and earn a real interest rate of 4 per cent. Inflation is 2 per cent, and your marginal tax rate is 20 per cent. What is your after-tax real rate of interest?

A.1.2 per cent

B.2.8 per cent

C.4.8 per cent

D.None of the above is correct.

22.Which of the following is correct? Inflation

A.impedes financial markets in their role of allocating resources.

B.reduces the purchasing power of the average consumer.

C.generally increases after-tax real interest rates.

D.is most costly when anticipated.

23.Wealth is redistributed from creditors to debtors when inflation is

A.high, whether it is expected or not.

B.low, whether it is expected or not.

C.unexpectedly high.

D.unexpectedly low.

amberdinosaur553

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ECO102H1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Takers, Shortage, Chlordiazepoxide

ECO102H1 Full Course Notes

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