BIO220H1 Chapter : Lab note bio220

1. Which hormone responsible for calcium absorption is synthesized by the kidneys?
a. Calcitriol b. Glucagon c. Erythropoietin d. Antidiuretic hormone

2. Which of the following regulations is not performed by the kidney?
a. acid-base balance b. blood pressure c. glycolysis d. blood production

3. The hormone require for blood pressure regulation and release by the kidney is _____.
a. erythropoietin b. renin c. calcitriol

4. Almost all nutrients and about 65% of sodium are actively reabsorbed in this part of the nephron, transported from the filtrate back to the plasma.
a. proximal tubule b. descending limb c. ascending limb d. collecting duct

5. Which site is where most regulation happens?
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

6. The site for countercurrent multiplier and exchange in the nephron is ________.
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

7. The function of the kidneys is evaluated by measuring the
a. tubular reabsorption b. tubular secretion c. glomerular filtration rate

8. Abnormal amount of leukocytes in urine is termed _____.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. nitrituria

9. In diabetes mellitus the clinical term for the abnormal urinalysis is called ________.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. proteinuria

10. The possible cause of increase ____________ in urine is liver pathology o gallstones.
a. bile b. erythrocytes c. nitrites d. glucose e. protein

11. Proteinuria is caused by increase glomerular permeability due to kidney trauma, heavy mental, toxins, exertion, hypertension or glomerular nephritis.
a. True b. False

12. The normal pH of urine ranges from _____ to _____.
a. 2.2, 4.5 b. 10.3, 13.5 c. 8.0, 10.2 d. 4.5, 8.0 e. 6.0, 7.0

13. The average specific gravity of urine is slightly higher than 1.000 because the solutes it contains.
a. True b. False


14. __________ is the term for the normal smell of fresh urine.
a. Asparagus b. Nitrites c. Urinoid d. Ammonia

15. The concentration of this pigment in urine change the color of it.
a. Urinoid b. Nitrites c. Urobilin d. Calcium

16. The failure of a kidney to develop is termed _________________.
a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidney
c. supernumerary kidney d. pelvic kidney

17 Renal ptosis refers to the ___________ movement of the kidney within the abdominal cavity.
a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior

18. Renal failure refers to the diminish o absent renal function caused by the destruction of about ___ of the kidney.
a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 90%

19. Renal calculus may occur from crystallized glucose after high levels in blood.
a. True b. False

20. An untreated UTI that spread to the kidneys is termed ____________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

21. Pain is an associated symptom of an UTI, and this is termed as __________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

22. Incontinence refers to ___________ whereas retention refers to____________
a. inability to involuntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally.
b. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to voluntary control urination
c. inability to voluntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally
d. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to involuntary control urination

23. All of the following are physical characteristics of urine except:
a. Color and transparency b. Odor c. pH d. specific gravity e. taste

24. Preformed water includes the water absorbed from food and drink whereas metabolic water includes the water from cellular respiration and dehydration.
a. True b. False

25. Sensible water los is not measured. In contrast insensible water loss is measured and includes sweat and transpiration.
a. True b, False

26. ____________ water loss is dependent upon the degree of hydration and is hormonally regulated in the tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative
27. ___________ water loss is a loss of water that always occur regales of the state of hydration of the body.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative

28. Fluid is lost from the body through the following normal mechanism except:
a. breathing b. sweating c. defecation d. urination e. vomiting

29. ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬The stimuli that activates the thirst center include all of the following except:
a. decreased salivary secretions b. distention of the stomach
c. increased blood osmolality d. decreased blood pressure

30. Stimuli for inhibiting the thirst center are produced when fluid intake is greater than fluid output.
a. True b. False

31. Fluid balance is regulated by monitoring blood volume, blood pressure, and blood plasma osmolarity.
a. True b. False

32. This electrolyte imbalance can lead to confusion, coma, paralysis of breathing muscles, and death.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

33. _____________ may cause muscle weakness and irregular heart beat that can lead to cardiac arrest.
a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia

34. Numbness, tingling, increase heat rate, and muscle spasm that can lead to tetany is caused by _____.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

35. If a patient needs IV fluids like 0.9% saline solution it means the solution contains 0.9 gr of _______ to every 100 ml of sterile water.
a. glucose chloride b. calcium chloride c. potassium chloride d. sodium chloride

36. Which of the following individual will be more vulnerable to dehydration?
a. Young adults b. Middle-aged adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. c & d

37. Diabetes insipidus refers to:
a. hypersecretion of insulin b. hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone
c. hyposecretion of insulin d. hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone
e. none of the above

38. During vomiting the major loss is ___________ whereas in diarrhea there is an extensive loss of ________.
a. hydrochloric acid (HCl), bicarbonate (HCO3) b. bicarbonate (HCO3), hydrochloric acid (HCl)
c. bicarbonate (HCO3), glucose d. hydrochloric acid (HCl), sodium



39. Lactic acidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

40. Ketoacidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

41. In respiratory alkalosis, respiratory rate increases and blood __________ _____________.
a. CO2 increases b. CO2 decreases
c. O2 increases d. O2 decreases e. none of the above

42. Metabolic acidosis compensate with _____________ ______________.
a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis e. metabolic alkalosis e. none of the above

43. The step in the digestive process that deals with a series of catabolic steps in which complex food molecules are broken down into their chemical building blocks by enzymes secreted into the lumen of the alimentary tract is called
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

44. ________________ is the passage of digestive end products from the lumen of the GI tract by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph.
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

45. In which part of the digestive tract is chemical digestion essentially completed?
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. small intestine e. large intestine

46. The organ that carries most metabolic function in the body is the
a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. pancreas

47. The main function of these organs is propulsion: peristaltic waves move food bolus to stomach accomplishing the phase of deglutition
a. Mouth and associated accessory organs b. Pharynx and esophagus
c. Stomach d. Small intestine e. Large intestine

48. Which hormone will be secreted especially if the bolus contains proteins?
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

49. The following target organs are stimulated by secretin except:
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. gallbladder

50. The stimulus of chime containing amino acids and fatty acids entering the small intestine releases ____________.
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

51. The cells that produce intrinsic factor, important in the absorption of B12, is the ______ cells.
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

52. The most numerous of the secretory cells within the gastric glands, which produce zymogen are:
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

53. The following are functions of hydrochloric acid except:
a. activates pepsinogen b. kills microorganism
c. prevents ulceration of the stomach d. denatures proteins

54. Barrett esophagus refers to an advance case of GERD in which the epithelium changes from columnar secretory to stratified squamous.
a. True b. False

55. Gastric and duodenal ulcer are both peptic ulcers; the difference is that one occurs in the stomach and the other in the first part of the duodenum respectively.
a. True b. False

56. The following are common complication of advanced liver cirrhosis except:
a. jaundice b. edema c. ascites d. gastritis e. intense itching

57. Most cases of appendicitis occurs because fecal matter obstructs the appendix. As the inflammation worsens the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed as well.
A. True b. False

58. The majority of colorectal cancer appears in the following areas except:
a. descending colon b. sigmoid colon c. rectum d. proximal ileum

59. Polyps are outgrowths from the colon mucosa whereas diverticulosis are bulges in the intestinal lining.
a. True b. False

60. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder. The damage in the small intestine is the smooth muscle which interferes with absorption.
a. True b. False

In this study you will learn about a modification of Mendelian inheritance which is also an important source of genetic variation.

You are about to perform what looks like a classic dihybrid testcross ("A" is the gene for eye color and "B" is the gene for wing color.)

A allele for red eyes

a allele for white eyes

B allele for clear wings

b allele for spotted wings

(AaBb) X (aabb) Note the genotypes and phenotypes.

Question #1: Predict the expected phenotypic ratio of this P X P cross.

Observed results:

500 red eyes clear wings

500 white eyes spotted wings

Question #2: How do the expected results compare with the observed results?

Question #3: Considering Mendel's second law (regarding dihybrid crosses), suggest an explanation for the discrepancy between the observed results and those predicted.

Genes are located at specific positions on a chromosome. The distance between genes is measured in terms of "mapping units". In this exercise the gene for wing phenotype “B” will be moved from its original position of zero to different positions on the chromosome. You will observe the effect of this gene movement.

First, gene "B" (wing color) is moved from position zero to position 10 on the same chromosome. Gene "A" (eye color) stays at position 0.

Observed Results: (position 10)

450 red eyes clear wings

50 red eyes spotted wings

50 white eyes clear wings

450 white eyes spotted wings

Question #4: How do these results differ from those predicted by Mendel's second law?

Question #5: From those in the first cross?

Question #6: Can you suggest a hypothesis to explain these new results?

Gene "B" (wing color) is now moved to position 20 on the same chromosome. Gene "A" (eye color) stays at position 0.

Observed Results: (position 20)

400 red eyes clear wings

100 red eyes spotted wings

100 white eyes clear wings

400 white eyes spotted wings

Question #7: How do the proportions of the phenotypic classes in this cross differ from the proportions you obtained in the earlier crosses?

The wing color gene "B" is now moved farther away (positions 30, 40, 50, and 60).

Observed Results: (position 30)

350 red eyes clear wings

150 red eyes spotted wings

150 white eyes clear wings

350 white eyes spotted wings

Observed Results: (position 40)

292 red eyes clear wings

220 red eyes spotted wings

195 white eyes clear wings

293 white eyes spotted wings

Observed Results: (position 50)

250 red eyes clear wings

250 red eyes spotted wings

250 white eyes clear wings

250 white eyes spotted wings

Observed Results: (position 60)

250 red eyes clear wings

250 red eyes spotted wings

250 white eyes clear wings

250 white eyes spotted wings

Question #8: Prepare a line graph plotting the % of recombinant offspring (Y-axis) vs. difference in position between the two genes (X-axis). (Hint: your graph should be one line with labeled points at map positions 0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, & 60).

Question #9: A genetic definition of "1 map unit" is the distance between 2 genes that gives 1% recombinants out of the total number of progeny. Using this definition, how many map units separate the "A" and "B" genes when the eye color gene "A" is at position 0 and the wing color gene "B" is at position 40? (Show how you determined the results.)

Question #10: How does the distance between two genes on the same chromosome affect the proportion of recombinants? Why?

Question #11: Maximum crossover frequency can be defined as the point at which no more recombination can be detected no matter how far apart the genes are located. Do your results indicate that you are approaching the maximum crossover frequency?

Question #12: Show (using a Punnett Square) the expected phenotypic rations if the two genes were located on different chromosomes.

Question #13: Which of your simulated cross or crosses do the data from the Punnett Square most closely fit? Why?

Question #14: A wild-type fly (heterozygous for gray body color and normal wings - b⁺ vg⁺/b vg) was mated to a black fly with vestigial wings (b vg/b vg). The F1 had the following phenotypic distribution: wild type, 850; black body - vestigial wings, 899; black body - normal wings, 79; gray body - vestigial wings, 85. What is the recombination frequency (RF) between these genes for body color and wing type? (show work)

Question #15: A cross produced 915 offspring with normal pigment and 310 with albinism. Conclusion?

a. One of the parents was homozygous for albinism.

b. Both parents were heterozygous.

c. One parent was homozygous for normal pigmentation.

d. Both parents were albinos. e. 605 albino zygotes must have failed to develop.

NOTE: Please show all work to support your answers.

NEED HELP PLEASE. CAN YOU PLEASE DO IT ALL NOT JUST ANSWER ONE.

MY ANIMALS ARE: HUMAN, KANGAROO, RHESUS MONKEY, BULLFROG, LAMPREY, SNAPPING TURTLE, TUNA, AND EARTHWORM

Step 3: Cytochrome c Analysis

Scientists have found that almost all living organisms have a gene that codes for a protein called Cytochrome c. This chart lists the amino acids found in the Cytochrome c protein of some of the organisms on your cladogram.

Note: not all the organisms you used will be in the chart; as such, you can focus this analysis on the animals that are in the chart. If you only chose three animals that are in the chart, you should probably extend your amino acid analysis to include a couple animals that aren’t on your cladogram.

You will use the data provided in this chart to compare and analyze the amino acid sequences for Cytochrome c among these organisms. Be sure that your comparison considers the entire amino acid sequence, through amino acid 112, and not just the first lines of the chart. Once you have compared the sequences, you will write a discussion about your findings.

Amino Acid Sequences in Cytochome-C Proteins

1-30

31-60

61-90

91-112

More information:

Cytochrome c is a protein used in cellular respiration by most eukaryotes, which is why it's a very common protein to use for comparisons. You don't need to know anything about cellular respiration or the protein itself to do this analysis; just remember that a protein is a specific chain of amino acids.

Which amino acids are found, and the order in which they're found (their sequence), determine the shape, structure, and function of the protein. Also remember that an amino acid sequence is directly determined by the DNA sequence, so similarities in one also indicate similarities in the other.

Please note that the entire sequence of 112 amino acids represents one protein, and this sequence data is all one chart, not four. As such, your analysis should consider the sequence as a whole, and not amino acids 1 – 30, then amino acids 31 – 60, etc.

Be careful not to read too much into the differences you find. Since this analysis only looks at one protein, you will not be able to connect differences here to specific differences in traits between organisms. In other words, it might be that all animals with a placenta have a “V” at a particular location, while animals without a placenta have either a “C” or a “K.” That similarity helps us confirm that those animals with a placenta are more closely related to each other than to the others, but the “V” does not code for the placenta, nor is it related to that particular trait at all.

How to Analyze the Data

While you analyze the data that you are given to identify similarities and differences, be sure to use specific data to draw your comparisons, hypotheses, and discussions from. It is especially helpful to quantitatively compare data. A good way to do this, or at least to start, is to pick one species as a starting point or ‘baseline’ and then compare the amount of differences between that and each other species. Be careful, though, about the conclusions you draw – if species B and C each have 5 differences from species A, then they could have anywhere from 0 to 10 differences with each other!

Once you’ve compared each animal to a baseline animal, you should also compare other pairs of species so that you can discuss their specific relationships. If you only have a few animals with data to analyze in part C, you could simply make this comparison for every pair. If you have 6 or 7 animals, then you could pick just a few pairs to compare.

There are other legitimate ways to form quantitative data – for instance, you could focus on specific locations where most animals have the same amino acid, but some are different. These types of analysis tend to be harder to interpret, though. If you choose to use them, I suggest that you still complete at least some of the above types of analysis as well.

The discussion topics that I'm looking for are:

Use the chart to compare the amino acid sequences for the organisms. Do this in a way that lets you obtain quantitative (numerical) data; see above for suggestions.

Hypothesize about how closely related the different organisms are, based on the amino acid data in the chart.

In particular, focus on organisms that are also found on your phylogenetic tree, but you may choose to discuss others, too. That would be especially helpful if you used only three or four of the organisms that are also in the chart, or if one or more organisms that you did not include in your tree jump out at you as being especially similar or especially different from the ones you did include.

This does not need to be in the form of a formal hypothesis; that is, you do not need to put this in “if/then/because” form.

Because “how closely related” can be interpreted in many ways, it’s often helpful to put this in relative terms: “Animal D is the closest relative to Animal A.” “Animals C and B are more closely related to each other than either one is to Animal D.”

Discuss how this analysis compares to the relationships that were shown on your phylogenetic tree.

To start, does the Cytochrome c data agree or disagree with the relationships shown on the tree?

Remember that "discuss" means more than simply identifying whether the relationships are the same or different as what is shown. You can also suggest why they're likely the same, or what possible differences could imply, if anything. See the note at the end of “More Information” above – don’t read TOO MUCH into any one piece of data!

If your amino acid analysis included animals that weren’t on your cladogram, you could use your amino acid data to speculate where they likely “fit” on the cladogram.

The phrase “common ancestor” should show up somewhere in this discussion.

Please be aware that Step 3 should be written as a short essay, not a list or set of questions and answers. You may include a chart or table for the quantitative data you identified, but the key findings should also be written in sentence form. Once you’ve finished writing this, please proofread for spelling, grammar, and writing clarity.

Step 3 should be a sizeable portion of this portfolio. I expect that your analysis should be about 250 – 400 words long in order to thoroughly analyze the data and discuss the questions.