ECON 4550 : WSJ For Test 1 FALL 2012

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15 Mar 2019

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If a country"s income exceeds its expenditures, the country has a current account (surplus/deficit) ___________. An increase in the government budget surplus (increases/decreases) _________ the current account surplus. $ /q . (increases/decreases/does not affect) _____________ If the european union decides to increase the tax on capital gains resulting from. This will (increase/decrease) ____________ u. s. exports to europe. A decrease in credit card use (increases/decreases) ____________ real money demand, which (increases/decreases) ____________ interest rates, and hence (increases/decreases) Holding everything else constant, an (increases/decreases) increase in eq . Answer only 4 of the 5 questions (20 points: traders in asset markets suddenly learn that the interest rate on dollar deposits will decline in the near future. Determine the effect on the current dollar/euro exchange rate, assuming current interest rates on dollar and euro deposits don not change. Illustrate and explain: suppose that there is a permanent decrease in money supply in europe and a decrease in real money demand in the u. s.

Related Questions

40. If the inflation rate falls below the rate that is expected, which of the following will happen?
A) inflationary expectations will increase and the Phillips curve will shift downward in the short run
B) inflationary expectations will decrease and the short-run Phillips curve will shift downward in the long run
C) inflationary expectations will decrease and the short-run Phillips curve will shift upward in the long run
D) inflationary expectations will increase and the Phillips curve will shift upward in the short run
E) inflationary expectations will decrease and the Phillips curve will shift downward in the short run

41. Which case represents the largest increase in the real national debt?
A) the price level increases by 500 percent and nominal debt increases by 500 percent
B) the price level increases by 200 percent and nominal debt increases by 600 percent
C) the price level decreases by 50 percent and nominal debt increases by 300 percent
D) the price level increases by 400 percent and nominal debt increases by 200 percent
E) the price level decreases by 90 percent and nominal debt increases by 200 percent

42. Which of the following is a transfer payment?
A) the federal government's budget deficit
B) unemployment compensation payments
C) military spending
D) wages of government employees
E) the excise tax on gasoline

43. One problem with using countercyclical fiscal policy is that
A) it may take months for the policy to be enacted
B) the policy may take effect too quickly
C) the money supply cannot be changed until several months have passed
D) tax cuts must be matched with spending changes
E) it has no effect on consumption spending

44. Suppose you are the president of a large bank. In which situation would you be most reluctant to loan money to a country?
A) its nominal debt is $10 trillion
B) its nominal debt is 1 percent of nominal GDP
C) its nominal deficit is $150 billion
D) its real deficit is 100 percent of real GDP
E) its real debt is 1 percent of real GDP

45. The national debt
A) can be paid off without major economic effects
B) need never be paid off
C) is no more serious a problem than is a corporation's debt
D) should not exist during a period of economic prosperity
E) is the simple sum of post budget deficits

46. Tax avoidance
A) reduces the difference between the average and marginal tax rates
B) increases federal revenue when it reduces the need for IRS workers
C) reduces federal revenue but does not affect tax progressivity
D) makes the tax system less progressive
E) makes the tax system more progressive

47. The national debt
A) is currently greater than the annual federal deficit
B) is reduced by the revenue generated from the federal deficit
C) decreases as the deficit is reduced
D) is a flow variable
E) varies depending on developments in the stock market

48. In the long run,
A) a larger budget deficit means a larger money supply
B) lower investment spending means slower growth of the standard of living
C) a larger budget deficit means higher consumption spending
D) a larger budget surplus means a smaller capital stock
E) government spending has no effect on the budget deficit or surplus

49. In an expansion,
A) federal budget deficits tend to rise
B) federal budget deficits tend to fall
C) the federal debt tends to rise faster than in a recession
D) federal government tax receipts tend to fall
E) there is pressure on the Fed to monetize the debt

50. Which of the following is not considered an automatic stabilizer?
A) food stamp program for people with low incomes
B) welfare program for families with dependent children
C) Medicaid, a health program for the poor
D) financial assistance for disabled people
E) unemployment programs that pay benefits to those who lose their jobs

whiteprairie-dog658

1. Which of the following cannot be determined using a production possibility table?

What combination of outputs can be produced.
How much less of one output can be produced if more of another output is produced.
What combination of outputs is best.
How much output can be produced from a given level of inputs.

2. Internal government debt is:

debt owed by citizens to their government.
debt owed by one government to another government.
government debt owed to citizens.
government debt owed to foreigners.

3. In general, budget deficits should:

never be run since they slow economic growth over the long run.
never be run since they crowd out investment in the short run.
be run on a temporary basis whenever the economy is below potential output.
be run on a permanent basis since they can always be financed over and over again.

4. If taxes and government outlays were constant and did not vary with income, then:

passive deficits would increase.
passive deficits would not exist.
structural deficits would increase.
structural deficits would not exist.

5. If the debt of the federal government increases by $10 billion in one year, then the budget:

deficit in that year must be $10 billion.
surplus in that year must be $10 billion.
deficit in that year decreased by $10 billion.
surplus in that year increased by $10 billion.

6. Which of the following would make the impending Social Security problem worse?

Raising income taxes when the baby boomers begin to retire.
Reducing the age at which one is eligible to receive payments.
Reducing Social Security retirement benefits.
Introducing means testing.

7. The price mechanism is: (Points : 5)

not affected by social and political forces.
affected by social but not political forces.
affected by political but not social forces.
affected by both political and social forces.

8. Social forces:

affect the price mechanism through cultural norms.
affect the price mechanism, but not the legal system.
affect the price mechanism through scarcity.
do not affect the price mechanism.

9. Opportunity cost is the same as marginal cost.

True
False

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of a market economy?

Private property.
Government ownership of the means of production.
Distribution according to need.
Tradition determines the what, how, and for whom decisions.

11. Mexico has a comparative advantage in producing corn:

if its opportunity cost of producing corn is higher than the opportunity cost in other countries.
if its opportunity cost of producing corn is the same as the opportunity cost in other countries.
if its opportunity cost of producing corn is lower than the opportunity cost in other countries.
regardless of the opportunity cost in other countries.

12. The opportunity cost for a student of attending college for a year is best measured by the:

benefit received by the student.
tuition paid for the year.
value of the next-best activity forgone by attending college.
total money outlays associated with attending college.

13. A passive deficit is the portion of the deficit that exists when:

the economy is at potential income.
the economy is beneath potential income.
inflation is not fully anticipated.
inflation is fully anticipated.

14. An important international lending institution is the:

IMF.
The Group of Eight.
EU.
WTO.

15. Private property rights:

are essential elements of a market economies.
do not need to be enforced in market economies.
must be established before a socialist economy can function properly.
ensure an equitable distribution of income in market economies.

16. If a country has a comparative advantage in the production of a good, then its resources are better suited to the production of that good than the resources of other countries.

True
False

17. As the interest rate rises, debt service:

decreases.
does not change, but debt increases.
increases.
does not change and neither does the debt.

18. Your opportunity cost of taking this course is:

the tuition you paid for the course.
the benefit of the activity you would have chosen if you had not taken the course.
the benefit you get from taking this course.
the cost of the activity you would have chosen if you had not taken the course.

19. One advantage of a corporation over a sole proprietorship is:

greater accountability.
avoidance of double taxation.
ease of formation.
greater ability to obtain funds.

20. Maintaining objectivity is easiest in:

positive economics.
the art of economics.
normative economics.
it is just as easy in all of the above

byzantiumimpala567

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ECON 4550 : WSJ For Test 1 FALL 2012

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