WGS160Y1 Study Guide - Reductionism, Heteronormativity, Frans De Waal

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whitecrab978

19 Jun 2012

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UTSG

Department

Women and Gender Studies

Course

WGS160Y1

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Document Summary

Waals article profiles bonobo primates and their "untraditional" same-sex mating. Bonobos engage in sex in virtually every partner combination. Bonobos share more than 98 percent of our genetic makeup, making them close to humans. A jealus male might chase another away from a female, after which the two males reunite and engage in scrotal rubbing. -> remain attached to their mothers all their lives. This article proves that the bonobo society (whom is 98 percent genetically similar to humans) does indeed partake in natural same-sex relations and female dominated positions. It debunks the bio-determinist assumptions made by the bible, darwin, and sciences which claim evolutionary heteronormativity in primates is natural and normal.

Related Questions

1.. Polymorphisms for a given trait are relatively common in most species. Discuss the possible advantages or polymorphisms in terms of evolutionary fitness. Be sure to relate your discussion to a specific example. It is also possible that organisms showing more heterozygosity may actually be less fit. Describe one such possible scenario.

2. In the peppered moth (Biston betularia), black individuals may be either homozygous (A1A1) or heterozygous(A1A2), whereas the pale gray moths are homozygous (A2A2). Suppose that in a sample of 250 moths from one locality, 108 are black, and 142 are gray.

3. Retrace the history of primate evolution from early primates to monkeys, apes and hominins. When did some ofthe significant divergences occur (such as between the prosimians and the monkeys or between the chimps and hominins)? What was happening with the continents and the major climatic conditions during these times?What are the major species (including the extinct species) along the human lineage after the split with the chimps and bonobos? Where did many of these events occur on the globe and when?

4. Spencer Wells described his study how the genetic markers in humans are being used to infer the historical geographical distribution of humans and the dispersal of our ancestors. Explain how the genetic markers on our DNA (from blood samples) helps us understand that history. What are the techniques he is using? What is the nature of the evidence? What are the major conclusions about the journey of our ancestors out of Africa?What were the major migrations of humans to all the other continents? Approximately when did each migration occur and what were the major paths? How does the evidence support these conclusions? What Supporting evidence besides the DNA evidence is being used to support these conclusions?

5. Provide an adaptive and a non adaptive hypothesis for the evolutionary loss of useless organs, such as eyes in many cave-dwelling animals. How might these hypotheses be tested?

6. Directional selection is one of the models of natural selection. Describe this type of selection in terms of the frequencies of advantageous alleles over time. What is the trend over time? What is the eventual outcome for this allele as long as no other evolutionary factors intervene? Describe at least one good example of directional selection.

7. Consider the first copy of an allele for insecticide resistance that arises by mutation in a population of insects exposed to an insecticide. Is this mutation an adaptation? If, after some generations, we find that most of the population is resistant, is the resistance an adaptation? If we discover genetic variation for insecticide resistance in a population that has had no experience of insecticides, is that variation an adaptation? If an insect population is polymorphic for two alleles, each of which confers resistance against one of two pesticides that are alternately applied, is that variation an adaptation? Or is each of the two resistance traits an adaptation?Explain your reasoning thoroughly.

8. Suppose that a mutation in a species of annual plant increases allocation to chemical defenses against herbivores, but decreases production of flowers and seeds (i.e., there is an allocation trade-off). What would you have to measure in a field study in order to predict whether or not the frequency of the mutation will increase?

9. In many socially monogamous species of parrots and other birds, both sexes are brilliantly colored or highly ornamented. Is sexual selection likely to be responsible for the coloration and ornaments of both sexes? How can there be sexual selection in pair-bonding species with a 1:1 sex ratio, since every individual presumably obtains a mate? Which of the models of sexual selection described in the book might account for these species characteristics?

10. Kin selection explains why organisms may provide benefits to relatives. Is there a conflict between the principle of kin selection and the evolution of siblicide and abortion?

11.Many species of albatrosses and other seabirds nest in colonies on islands. The adult search for food at sea,sometimes over great distances. Some ecologists who study seabirds turn to their favorite topic of discussion in a bar one evening, and one says, âI can imagine an albatross genotype that destroys the eggs of nestlings of its colony mates when the parents are away foraging, and leaves them dead without eating them. Do you think such a behavior would evolve?â One of his companions says, âYes, because it would make more food available for the albatross and its offspring.â Another says, âNo, because it would threaten the survival of the population.â The fourth says, âYouâre both wrong. I have a different explanation for why albatrosses donât kill othersâ chicks.â What is the fourth ecologistâs explanation, and why does she think her companions are wrong?

12. The concept of a species is fundamental to understanding biology, yet there may not be one definition that fits all âtypesâ of organisms (e.g. animals, plants, fungi, bacteria, slime mold, lichens, etc.). Discuss several of the definitions of a species as presented in class and present your own definition for a species. Compare the strengths and weaknesses of each definition. Ernst Mayr is strong proponent of the biological species concept.How does he justify his position? Do you agree or disagree? If we employ the biological species concept, when did species first exist? What were organisms before then, if not species? What might the consequences of the emergence of species be for processes of adaptation and diversification? Be sure to explain your reasoning thoroughly.

13. The process of speciation ultimately involves the development of reproductive isolation between two related populations of organisms. Describe the various types of both prezygotic and postzygotic reproductive isolation and give an example of each.

14. Respond to the following quote from the character named Mr. Spock in âStar Trekâ:âA truly successful parasite is commensal, living in amity with its host, or even giving it positive advantages, as for instance, the protozoans who live in the digestive system of your termites and digest for them the wood they eat. A parasite that regularly and inevitably kills its host cannot survive long, in the evolutionary sense, unless it multiplies with tremendous rapidity ... it is not pro-survival.âFrom what you have learned in this course, do you agree or disagree with Spock? How can you apply your reasoning to the relative âfitnessâ of HIV which causes AIDS, the Ebola virus which causes hemorrhagic fever,fleas which suck blood from dogs, or the prokaryotic ancestors of mitochondria and chloroplasts?

15. In many species of birds and mammals, clutch size is larger in populations at high latitudes than in population sat low latitudes. Species of lizards and snakes at high latitudes often have smaller clutches, however, and are more frequently viviparous (bear live young rather than laying eggs), than low-latitude species. What selective factors might be responsible for these patterns? Explain your reasoning.

16. The popular media often presents evolution as being a predictable process with a definite goal. For instance, in one âStar Trek: Voyagerâ episode, the captain instructs the shipâs computer to extrapolate the âprobable courseâ of evolution of hadrosaurs (a bipedal dinosaur), if hadrosaurs had been removed from Earth before the Cretaceous-Tertiary (K-T) Extinction and allowed to evolve on another planet. What information about the hadrosaursâ new environment would have been useful in developing the best possible prediction? Given what you know on genetic drift and selective agents, is it possible to accurately predict the long-term course of evolution?

17. Young children often develop strong food preferences that sometimes seem bizarre to their parents --- such as wanting to eat only a certain food prepared in a familiar way, or being reluctant to each new foods or foods with strong or bitter tastes (like coffee and some vegetables). Develop an evolutionary explanation for such preferences. What evidence would you gather to investigate your hypothesis and rule out alternative explanations?

18. Many organisms, such as mammals, only reproduce by sexual means. Other organisms are exclusively asexual,such as many of the bacteria and fungi. And still others have ways of propagating by both sexual and asexualmeans. Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of each mode of reproduction. Why arenât all organisms sexual critters? Why are many asexual organisms still very successful as evidenced by the pure abundance and diversity? What is the adaptive significance of having different genders (e.g. male and female)?In other words, why sex?

19. How might differential expression and regulation by Hox genes contribute to mosaic evolution in which different segments of an animal body plan evolve different morphology?

20. Development of a morphological structure involves many different types of gene products, including transcription factors, signaling proteins, and âeffectorâ genes such as enzymes. When a morphological change occurs in a single mutational step, which of these types might be more or less likely to be involved? Within a gene, would such single-step events be more likely to involve coding or non-coding sequences, and what characteristics of the geneâs function might affect this likelihood?

21. Since 2001, the complete DNA sequences of the genomes of many people have been determined. If humans,along with other forms of life, have evolved from a common ancestor, what evidence of this would be expected in the human genome? In what ways might the history and processes of evolution help us interpret and make sense of the human genome sequence data?

22. Paleontologists and some biologists commonly infer function, and even behavior, from anatomical details.Skeletal features, for example, are often used to infer that an extinct mammal (such as an early hominid) was highly, somewhat, or not at all arboreal. This inference assumes a good fit of form to function (i.e., optimal form). Can this assumption be justified?

23. Stephen Jay Gould (1989) and others have argued that the evolution of self-conscious, intelligent species (i.e.humans) was historically contingent: it would not have occurred had any of a great many historical events been different. The philosopher Daniel Dennett (1995) and others have disagreed, arguing that convergent evolution is so common that if humans had not evolved, some other lineage would probably have given rise to a species with similar mental abilities. What do you think, and why? If Gouldâs position is right, what are its philosophical implications, if any?

24. Explain how Intelligent Design was determined as a religious view rather than a scientific view in the court casein Dover, PA. Should a scientific explanation of evolution be included in a science curriculum in K-12 schools?How is science and religion different in how they seek answers to questions? How is term "theory" used differently in science than in everyday English use? What is biological evolution? What evidence is used to support the scientific explanation of evolution? Is it possible to accept scientific explanations without rejecting religious faith?

25. Discuss how a creationist versus an evolutionary biologist might explain some human characteristics and the implications of their differences. Sample characteristics: eyes; wisdom teeth; individually unique friction ridges(fingerprints); five digits rather than some other number; susceptibility to infections; fever when infected;variation in sexual orientation; limited life span.

Next Article >

20 questions: Evidence-based practice or sacred cow?

Miller, Julie BSN, RN, CCRN; Hayes, Denise Drummond MSN, RN, CRNP; Carey, Katherine W.

Author Information

Julie Miller is a staff development educator for critical care at the Trinity Mother Frances Hospitals and Clinics in Tyler, Tex., and president and founder of Paws to Learn in Whitehouse, Tex. Denise Drummond Hayes is senior clinical editor of Nursing2015. Katherine W. Carey is executive editor of Nursing2015.

The authors and planners have disclosed no potential conflicts of interest, financial or otherwise.

DESPITE DRAMATIC ADVANCES in nursing and medical research, many nurses continue to promote outdated nursing practices that have been proven ineffective, unnecessary, and in some cases, downright dangerous. Based on tradition rather than science, these âsacred cowsâ are often revered by nurses and hard to dislodge from practice.

Figure. No caption a...

Last year, Nursing conducted a nationwide survey to gather information about current nursing practice. A total of 2,356 respondents answered 20 true/false questions designed to test nurses' understanding of best practices. The survey instrument was presented in the journal and online.

This article reviews the survey results and provides evidence-based rationales for the correct responses. In cases where the correct response is ambiguous or unsettled, the best available evidence is discussed. The correct answer is highlighted in red. Percentages may not add up to 100 because numbers have been rounded. Not all respondents answered every question.

1. Patients experiencing hypotension and shock should be placed in Trendelenburg position to improve blood flow to the heart and brain.

True: 51% False: 49%

False. Trendelenburg position was originally developed in the 1880s to expose pelvic organs during surgery. Its use was popularized during World War I to treat hypotensive shock. Widespread use was adopted despite numerous calls to stop using it as a method of resuscitation for hypotension.

The Trendelenburg position has been studied for the last 50 years. Most studies show no improvement in cardiac output or BP with its use. Although some anecdotal reports have noted a transient improvement in both cardiac output and BP, those changes usually last less than 10 minutes.

Patients who are placed in Trendelenburg position for hypotension are at risk for experiencing profound hemodynamic compromise, increased intracranial pressure, and altered respiratory mechanics. Additionally, patients who are obese or who have right ventricular failure, pulmonary disorders, or head injuries have been found to suffer adverse consequences from Trendelenburg positioning.

The take-home message here is to stop using Trendelenburg position to manage hypotension and hypotensive shock. If your patient experiences hypotension, position him or her supine with the lower extremities elevated. This position improves venous return to the right heart without causing overwhelming cardiac compromise.

REFERENCES

Bridges N, Jarquin-Valdivia AA. Use of the Trendelenburg position as the resuscitation position: to T or not to T. Am J Crit Care. 2005;14(5):364â368.http://ajcc.aacnjournals.org/content/14/5/364.full.

Johnson S, Henderson SO. Myth: the Trendelenburg position improves circulation in cases of shock. Can J Emerg Med. 2004;6(1):48â49.

Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

2. Scrubbing the hub of an I.V. port for a minimum of 15 seconds before accessing a central line has been shown to reduce central line-associated bloodstream infections.

True: 81% False: 19%

Probably true. Although the optimum amount of time for hub disinfection remains to be determined, the suggested time frame ranges from 5 to 15 seconds. The 2014 practice guidelines from The Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA), the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA), and other agencies suggest applying vigorous mechanical friction for no less than 5 seconds before accessing catheter hubs, needleless connectors, or injection ports. Most references recommend 10 to 15 seconds. The guidelines also suggest the use of 0.5% chlorhexidine gluconate in 70% alcohol preparation, 70% alcohol, or povidone-iodine solutions with consideration that the alcohol-chlorhexidine solution may have additional residual activity over alcohol. The guidelines recommend monitoring scrub-the-hub compliance because most access ports remain colonized under conditions of standard practice.

Vigorous mechanical friction technique in scrubbing the hub with alcoholic chlorhexidine, povidone-iodine, or 70% alcohol solution will help reduce the incidence of central line-associated blood stream infections. Current accepted practice is to scrub from a minimum of 5 to 15 seconds.

REFERENCES

The Joint Commission. CLABSI Toolkit and Monograph. 2015.http://www.jointcommission.org/CLABSIToolkit.

Lockman JL, Heitmiller ES, Ascenzi JA, Berkowitz I. Scrub the hub! Catheter needleless port decontamination. Anesthesiology. 2011;114(4):958.

Marschall J, Mermel LA, Fakih M, et al. SHEA/IDSA practice recommendation: strategies to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections in acute care hospitals: 2014 update. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2014;35(7):753â771.http://www.jstor.org/stable/10.1086/676533.

Peel TN, Cheng AC, Buising KL, Dowsey MM, Choong PF. Alcoholic chlorhexidine or alcoholic iodine skin antisepsis (ACAISA): protocol for cluster randomised controlled trial of surgical skin preparation for the prevention of superficial wound complications in prosthetic hip and knee replacement surgery. BMJ Open. 2014;4(5).http://bmjopen.bmj.com/content/4/5/e005424.full.

Simmons S, Bryson C, Porter S. âScrub the hubâ: cleaning duration and reduction in bacterial load on central venous catheters. Crit Care Nurs Q. 2011;34(1):31â35. Ovid Full Text

3. Instilling normal saline solution before endotracheal suctioning improves oxygenation, facilitates removal of secretions, and stimulates coughing to mobilize secretions.

True 35% False: 65%

False. Little research supports the use saline instillation before endotracheal (ET) tube suctioning to improve oxygenation or removal or to thin secretions. In 2010, after reviewing 19 years of literature, the American Association of Respiratory Care published clinical practice guidelines that recommended against the routine instillation of normal saline prior to suctioning. Other studies have demonstrated that normal saline instillation may actually be detrimental by increasing the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) due to bacterial contamination of the saline vials.

Based on current literature and best practice, saline instillation prior to ET suctioning shouldn't be done routinely.

REFERENCES

American Association for Respiratory Care. AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines. Endotracheal suctioning of mechanically ventilated patients with artificial airways 2010. Respir Care. 2010;55(6):758â764.

Caruso P, Denari S, Ruiz SA, Demarzo SE, Deheinzelin D. Saline instillation before tracheal suctioning decreases the incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia. Crit Care Med. 2009;37(1):32â38.

Rauen CA, Chulay M, Bridges E, Vollman KM, Arbour R. Seven evidence-based practice habits: putting some sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2008;28(2):98â123.

4. Auscultating the abdomen while injecting air through a gastric feeding tube is a reliable way to ensure proper tube placement.

True 31% False: 69%

False. Traditionally, auscultation during air insufflation through the feeding tube has been used to verify feeding tube placement at the bedside. To use this method, the clinician instills air into the feeding tube while listening with a stethoscope placed over the stomach. The assumption is that the sound of air entering the stomach confirms that the tube is placed correctly in the stomach. However, research has shown that this assumption is unreliable. The auscultatory method can't detect when the distal end is located in the esophagus or distinguish between gastric and small bowel placement. Misleading findings are known as pseudoconfirmatory gurgling.

In 2012, a safety alert was distributed by the Child Health Patient Safety Organization recommending the immediate discontinuation of the auscultation method for assessment and verification of gastric tube tip placement. When in doubt, obtain a radiograph to determine gastric tube location.

For more discussion and details on confirming feeding tube placement and other enteral feeding guidelines, see âWhat's on the Menu? Delivering Evidence-based Nutritional Therapyâ in this issue.

REFERENCES

Enteral Nutrition Practice Recommendations Task Force: Bankhead R, Boullata J, Brantley S, et al. A.S.P.E.N. enteral nutrition practice recommendations. J Parenter Enter Nutri. 2009;33(2):122â167.

National Association of Childrens Hospitals (NACH), ECRI Institute. Blind Pediatric NG Tube Placements Continue to Cause Harm. Overland Park, KS: Child Health Patient Safety Organization, Inc.; 2012.

Patient Safety Authority. Confirming feeding tube placement: old habits die hard. PA PSRS Patient Saf Advis. 2006;3(4):23â30.

5. Before initiating enteral nutrition, pH testing of gastric tube aspirate is a reliable way to ensure that the tube is properly placed in the stomach.

True: 51% False: 49%

False. Gastric pH testing doesn't reliably confirm correct placement of a gastric tube. It's true that gastric fluid is usually acidic with a pH less than or equal to 5.5, and respiratory secretions are almost always alkaline with a pH greater than or equal to 6.0. But several conditions can affect the pH of these aspirates. For example, gastric pH will rise temporarily when the patient is receiving enteral feedings or certain medications, such as a proton pump inhibitor.

Guidelines from the American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition (A.S.P.E.N.) recommend radiographic confirmation for any blindly inserted gastric tube (small or large bore) before its initial use for instillation of medications or feedings in adults. Marking the tube at the exit site with an indelible marker after radiographic confirmation is also recommended.

In 2014, A.S.P.E.N. affirmed that abdominal radiographs or chest radiographs that include the abdomen are most reliable for confirmation of gastric tube tip location. This recommendation extends to the pediatric population. Methods for ongoing verification of gastric tube placement include assessing the external tube length for changes.

REFERENCES

American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice Alert. Verification of feeding tube placement (blindly inserted).http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/docs/practicealerts/verification-feeding-tube-placement.pdf?menu=aboutus.

American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition. Researchers call for upgrade in guidelines and technology for placement of nasal feeding tubes in pediatric patients. News release. May 21, 2014.

Enteral Nutrition Practice Recommendations Task Force: Bankhead R, Boullata J, Brantley S, et al. A.S.P.E.N. enteral nutrition practice recommendations. J Parenter Enter Nutri. 2009;33(2):122â167.

Irving SY, Lyman B, Northington L, Bartlett JA, Kemper C. Nasogastric tube placement and verification in children: review of the current literature. Crit Care Nurse. 2014;34(3):67â78.http://ccn.aacnjournals.org/content/34/3/67.full.

Patient Safety Authority. Confirming feeding tube placement: old habits die hard. PA PSRS Patient Saf Advis. 2006;3(4):23â30.

National Association of Children's Hospitals (NACH), ECRI Institute. Blind Pediatric NG Tube Placements Continue to Cause Harm. Overland Park, KS: Child Health Patient Safety Organization, Inc.; 2012.

6. Continuous aspiration of subglottic secretions helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).

True: 29% False: 71%

True. Numerous studies and evidence-based guidelines recommend continuous or frequent intermittent drainage of subglottic secretions using an ET tube with a dorsal lumen above the cuff in adult patients. The 2014 SHEA/IDSA guidelines for reducing VAP recommend using ET tubes with subglottic suctioning ports in patients expected to require mechanical ventilation for at least 48 hours. As reported in the guidelines, a meta-analysis of 13 randomized controlled trials showed that use of ET tubes with subglottic drainage reduced VAP rates by 55%, reduced mechanical ventilation duration by 1.1 days, and shortened ICU length of stay by 1.5 days.

REFERENCES

American Association of Critical-care Nurses. VAP Practice Alert. Ventilator associated pneumonia. 2008.http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/docs/practicealerts/vap.pdf.

Ampel NM. Intermittent subglottic suction to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. NEJM Journal Watch. [e-pub October 27, 2010]

Deem S, Treggiari MM. New endotracheal tubes designed to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia: do they make a difference. Respir Care. 2010;55(8):1046â1055.

Klompas M, Branson R, Eichenwald EC, et al. SHEA/IDSA practice recommendation. Strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia in acute care hospitals: 2014 update. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2014;35(8):915â936.

Lacherade JC, De Jonghe B, Guezennec P, et al. Intermittent subglottic secretion drainage and ventilator-associated pneumonia: a multicenter trial. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2010;182(7):910â917.

Speroni KG, Lucas J, Dugan L, et al. Comparative effectiveness of standard endotracheal tubes vs. endotracheal tubes with continuous subglottic suctioning on ventilator-associated pneumonia rates. Nurs Econ. 2011;29(1):15â20, 37.

7. Checking gastric residual volume before initiating enteral feeding is necessary to assess gastric emptying and reduce aspiration risk.

True: 78% False: 22%

Probably false. More research is needed about the frequency and significance of gastric residual volume (GRV) measurements. Historically, elevated GRV has been used as a measure of tolerance to enteral tube feedings, but the evidence doesn't support measuring GRV as a single tool for evaluating enteral feeding tolerance or for preventing aspiration. Elevated GRV when combined with other patient assessment data such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distension, sepsis, use of sedation, or the addition of vasopressors does show worsening patient outcomes. Research shows that measuring GRV doesn't correlate with aspiration risk and interferes with nutritional support.

All patients fed enterally should be assessed for aspiration risks, such as hemodynamic instability, sepsis, altered level of consciousness, and mechanical ventilation. Nurses must assess beyond GRV for other measures of intolerance, such as abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The 2009 A.S.P.E.N. practice guidelines for enteral feeding recommend the following strategies for preventing aspiration:

* Ensure that the feeding tube is in the proper position before initiating feedings.

* Keep the head of bed (HOB) elevated 30 to 45 degrees during administration of enteral feedings.

* If possible, utilize a large-bore sump tube for the first 24 to 48 hours of enteral feeding and evaluate GRV using at least a 60-mL syringe.

* Assess GRV every 4 hours during the first 48 hours in patients receiving gastric tube feedings. After the enteral feeding goal rate is achieved and/or the sump tube is replaced with a soft, small-bore feeding tube, GRV monitoring may be decreased to every 6 to 8 hours in noncritically ill patients. However, every-4-hour measurements are recommended in critically ill patients.

* If GRV is greater than 250 mL after a second GRV measurement, consider the addition of a promotility agent in adults.

* For GRV greater than 500 mL, hold enteral nutrition and reassess patient tolerance with an established algorithm including physical assessment, GI assessment, evaluation of glycemic control, minimization of sedation, and consideration of a promotility agent.

* Consider placement of a feeding tube below the ligament of Treitz when GRV measurements are consistently more than 500 mL.

REFERENCES

Enteral Nutrition Practice Recommendations Task Force: Bankhead R, Boullata J, Brantley S, et al. A.S.P.E.N. enteral nutrition practice recommendations. J Parenter Enter Nutri. 2009;33(2):122â167.

Flynn Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

Seres D. Nutrition support in critically ill patients: enteral nutrition. UpToDate. 2015.http://www.uptodate.com.

8. Continuous enteral nutrition should be stopped before a patient is turned or repositioned.

True: 59% False: 41%

False. The evidence doesn't support the practice of holding tube feedings when lowering the HOB or repositioning patients for routine care. In fact, research shows that it's not only unnecessary, it's detrimental. In one study, 30% of 45 critically ill patients received inadequate calories because feedings were suspended during nursing care.

Best practice is to minimize interruptions in enteral feedings. Don't suspend feedings for short periods when the HOB needs to be lowered for nursing care. Although feeding should be stopped for procedures requiring the HOB to be lowered for a prolonged period, it should resume immediately when the procedure is complete. Follow your facility's enteral nutrition protocol to ensure that patients receive their prescribed calories.

REFERENCES

Enteral Nutrition Practice Recommendations Task Force: Bankhead R, Boullata J, Brantley S, et al. A.S.P.E.N. enteral nutrition practice recommendations. J Parenter Enter Nutri. 2009;33(2):122â167.

Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

McClave SA, Saad MA, Esterle M, et al. Volume-based feeding in the critically ill patient. J Parenter Enteral Nutr. [e-pub June 18, 2014]

Metheny N. Turning tube feeding off while repositioning patients in bed. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):96â97.

Stewart ML. Interruptions in enteral nutrition delivery in critically ill patients and recommendations for clinical practice. Crit Care Nurse. 2014;34(4):14â22.

9. Kinetic and continuous lateral rotation therapy reduces the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia.

True: 74% False: 26%

True. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (CLRT) has been shown to reduce the prevalence of VAP in appropriately selected patients. Most studies agree that intervention with CLRT should be initiated within 48 hours of when the patient meets criteria for benefiting from CLRT. Criteria used to identify patients who will benefit from this intervention include a ratio of arterial oxygen tension to fraction of inspired oxygen (Pao₂/Fio₂) less than 300 mm Hg or the need for increasing levels of positive end-expiratory pressure and Fio₂ to maintain oxygenation. Research shows that CLRT can reduce the incidence of VAP, shorten ventilation time, and shorten length of stay. Study results are mixed regarding the best degree of lateral rotation.

REFERENCES

Hansen-Flaschen J, Siegel MD. Acute respiratory distress syndrome: clinical features and diagnosis in adults. UpToDate. 2015.http://www.uptodate.com.

Staudinger T, Bojic A, Holzinger U, et al. Continuous lateral rotation therapy to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Crit Care Med. 2010;38(2):486â90.

Swadner-Culpepper L. Continuous lateral rotation therapy in progressive mobility in critical care. Crit Care Nurse. 2010;30(2):S5âS7.

10. Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are a first-line treatment for insomnia, agitation, and delirium in older adults.

True: 14% False: 87%

False. According to the Pain, Agitation, Delirium (PAD) guidelines published in 2013 by the American College of Critical Care Medicine, âelderly patients are significantly more sensitive to the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression and systemic hypotension, especially when administered in conjunction with other cardiopulmonary depressants, particularly opioids.â In addition, hepatic impairment, common in older adults, reduces clearance of benzodiazepines. The Beers criteria strongly recommend against use of benzodiazepines in older adults citing the high quality of evidence supporting this position.

Agitated patients should be promptly assessed to identify underlying causes, such as pain, hypoxemia, delirium, or alcohol withdrawal, and treated accordingly. Besides pain control, recommended first-line strategies to manage agitation and promote sleep in older adults include grouping nursing interventions to minimize interruptions, controlling noise and light in the environment, and minimizing stimuli at night to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. The PAD guidelines also recommend using progressive mobility to reduce the incidence of delirium in adult ICU patients. Nonbenzodiazepine medications are recommended to reduce the incidence of delirium in all adults on mechanical ventilation.

REFERENCES

Barr J, Fraser GL, Puntillo K, et al. Clinical practice guidelines for the management of pain, agitation, and delirium in adult patients in the intensive care unit. Crit Care Med. 2013;41(1):263â306.

2012 AGS Beers criteria for potentially inappropriate medication use in older adults.http://www.americangeriatrics.org/files/documents/beers/2012BeersCriteria_JAGS.pdf.

11. The routine use of hyperventilation to reduce increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is considered a standard of care.

True: 19% False: 81%

False. Routine use of hyperventilation isn't recommended due to the risk of cerebral ischemia from reduced partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco₂).

Research shows that mechanical ventilation can rapidly reduce ICP due to vasoconstriction and a reduction in intracranial blood volume; however, the effects are temporary (24 hours or less). Therapeutic hyperventilation is an option for managing ICP in certain urgent situations but isn't indicated on a chronic basis, particularly in patients with acute stroke or traumatic brain injury (TBI).

Limiting the use of hyperventilation has been shown to improve 3- and 6-month outcomes for patients with TBI. Most patients with severe TBI have elevated ICP. In the past, hyperventilation has been used routinely to reduce ICP associated with severe TBI, but numerous studies have documented cerebral ischemia and poor outcomes in patients managed with routine hyperventilation.

The most recent guidelines for severe TBI published in 2007 advise avoiding hyperventilation in the first 24 hours following TBI, when cerebral blood flow is often already reduced. These guidelines also recommend that hyperventilation be used only as a temporizing measure for increased ICP. When it is used, either jugular venous oxygen saturation or brain tissue oxygen tension levels should be monitored to assess oxygen delivery.

REFERENCES

Bullock MR, Povlishock JT. Guidelines for the management of severe traumatic brain injury. Editor's Commentary. J Neurotrauma. 2007;24(suppl 1):S1âS106.

Smith ER, Amin-Hanjani S. Evaluation and management of elevated intracranial pressure in adults. UpToDate. 2015.http://www.uptodate.com.

12. Visitors should be restricted for patients with TBI to prevent spikes in ICP.

True: 30% False: 70%

Probably false. The literature is mixed and limited with regards to visitation and its effect on ICP. What is known is that with patients who have elevated ICP, appropriate interventions include maintaining a quiet, low-stimulation environment. Visitors who can maintain this type of an environment may be beneficial to the care of the patient. A gentle, soothing tone of voice and calming touch are also important.

For the nursing profession, the impact visitors may have on a patient's ICP is an area requiring further study. However, the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses recommends open visiting policies in the ICU because the evidence shows that âthe unrestricted presence and participation of a support person can enhance patient and family satisfaction, because it improves the safety of care.â

REFERENCES

American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice Alert. Family presence: visitation in the adult ICU. 2011.http://www.aacn.org/WD/practice/docs/practicealerts/family-visitation-adult-icu-practicealert.pdf.

Hendrickson SL. Intracranial pressure changes and family presence. J Neurosci Nurs. 1987;19(1):14â17. Ovid Full Text

13. To reduce aspiration risk, healthy preoperative adults who are undergoing elective procedures should be N.P.O. after midnight.

True: 67% False: 33%

False. Current anesthesia guidelines suggest that the traditional N.P.O.-after-midnight protocol should no longer be implemented. Studies comparing GRV and gastric pH in patients who were N.P.O. from clear liquids for 2 to 4 hours to that of patients who were N.P.O. for more than 4 hours showed higher GRV and lower pH values in the patients who'd been N.P.O. for more than 4 hours. Studies also have shown that when N.P.O. overnight is compared with N.P.O. for 6 hours after a light meal (toast), results are equivocal regarding gastric volumes.

Current anesthesia guidelines and literature for healthy adults provide recommendations for fasting from solids and clear liquids. For clear liquids, the minimum fasting period can be shortened to 2 hours prior to elective procedures requiring general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or sedation/analgesia. For a light meal, the minimum fasting period can be shortened to 6 hours before elective procedures requiring general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or sedation/analgesia. For patients who consume a meal that includes fatty or fried foods, the recommendation is a minimum fasting period of 8 hours or more prior to elective procedures requiring general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or sedation/analgesia. (These recommendations don't apply to women in labor.)

REFERENCE

Apfelbaum JL, Caplan RA, Connis RT, et al. Practice guidelines for preoperative fasting and the use of pharmacologic agents to reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration: application to healthy patients undergoing elective procedures: an updated report by the American Society of Anesthesiologists Committee on Standards and Practice Parameters. Anesthesiology. 2011;114(3):495â511.

14. Unless contraindicated, the HOB should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia.

True: 87% False: 13%

True. Guidelines and studies support elevating the HOB to 30 to 45 degrees as a measure to prevent aspiration leading to VAP and hospital-acquired pneumonia.

HOB elevation is a simple, low-cost intervention that doesn't cause harm, whereas supine positioning predisposes the patient to aspiration. The SHEA/IDSA guidelines recommend placing endotracheally intubated patients in the semirecumbant position unless contraindicated.

REFERENCES

American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice Alert. Ventilator associated pneumonia. 2008.http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/docs/practicealerts/vap.pdf.

American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Implementing the ABCDE Bundle at the Bedside.http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/content/actionpak/withlinks-ABCDE-ToolKit.content?menu=practice.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. FAQs about ventilator-associated pneumonia.http://www.cdc.gov/HAI/pdfs/vap/VAP_tagged.pdf.

File Jr. TM. Risk factors and prevention of hospital-acquired, ventilator-associated, and healthcare-associated pneumonia in adults. UpToDate. 2015.http://www.uptodate.com.

Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement. Health care protocol: prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia. 2011.https://www.icsi.org.

Klompas M, Branson R, Eichenwald EC, et al. SHEA/IDSA practice recommendation. Strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia in acute care hospitals: 2014 Update. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2014;35(8):915â936.

15. Wet-to-dry gauze dressings promote healing in clean granulating chronic wounds.

True: 41% False: 59%

False. In chronic wounds with an adequate blood supply, a moist environment supports healing. Wet-to-dry dressings don't maintain a moist environment when they dry out. In addition, removing a dried dressing also removes newly deposited granulation tissue from the wound bed and is painful for the patient. In general, wet-to-dry dressings should be avoided for clean granulating chronic wounds.

REFERENCES

Ayello EA, Baranoski S. Nursing2014 survey results: wound care and prevention. Nursing2014. 2014;44(4):34. Ovid Full Text

Jones KR, Fennie K, Lenihan A. Evidence-based management of chronic wounds. Adv Skin Wound Care. 2007;20(11):591â600.

16. When preoperative hair removal is necessary, it should be performed with a surgical clipper rather than a razor.

True: 89% False: 11%

True. Preoperative shaving of surgical sites is no longer the standard of care. Shaving a site the night before surgery significantly raises the risk of a surgical site infection (SSI) compared with use of depilatory agents, clipping hair immediately before surgery, or no hair removal at all. Shaving produces microscopic cuts that invite infection, and depilatories may produce hypersensitivity reactions. Some studies indicate that all methods of hair removal increase the risk of SSIs compared with no hair removal.

The current standard is to avoid hair removal unless the hair will interfere with the surgery. If hair removal is indicated, it should be performed with electric clippers immediately before the procedure.

REFERENCES

Anderson DJ, Podgorny K, BerrÃos-Torres SI, et al. SHEA/IDSA Practice Recommendation. Strategies to prevent surgical site infections in acute care hospitals: 2014 update. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2014;35(6):605â627.

Institute for Healthcare Improvement. How-to guide: prevent surgical site infections. 2012.http://www.ihi.org.

Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

17. To clean the skin of patients with fecal incontinence, use a no-rinse bathing/perineal cleaning product rather than soap and water.

True: 63% False: 37%

True. Cleaning the skin with soap and water is irritating and can damage skin due to mechanical friction and alkalinity of soap. No-rinse bathing products, which are pH balanced, gently reduce the amount of residual bacteria colonized on the skin. Ensuring the skin remains moisture-free is also a strategy known to help reduce the incidence of pressure ulcer development. Frequent linen changes and using a moisture barrier are best practices to help reduce moisture.

REFERENCES

Estilo ME, Angeles A, Perez T, Hernandez M, Valdez M. Pressure ulcers in the intensive care unit: new perspectives on an old problem. Crit Care Nurse. 2012;32(3):65â70.

Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

18. By diverting feces into a collection bag, rectal tubes can help prevent perianal tissue damage in critically ill patients with fecal incontinence.

True: 75% False: 25%

False. The use of rectal tubes is a tradition that many nurses ascribe to; however, it's the least safe procedure for managing fecal incontinence. Mushroom-shaped catheters or traditional urinary catheters with a balloon are likely to damage the rectal vault and sphincter. Best practice for managing fecal incontinence includes assessment of the cause of the diarrhea/incontinence and the use of fecal collection devices such as rectal pouches/bags.

Assess and manage the cause of the patient's diarrhea. If a collection device is needed, use a rectal pouch or bag, not a rectal tube.

REFERENCE

Makic MB, VonRueden KT, Rauen CA, Chadwick J. Evidence-based practice habits: putting more sacred cows out to pasture. Crit Care Nurse. 2011;31(2):38â62.

19. Evidence-supported indications for inserting an indwelling urinary catheter include major trauma, bladder irrigation, and comfort care for terminally ill patients.

True: 78% False: 22%

True. According to current guidelines from the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee, appropriate indications for indwelling urinary catheterization include:

* treating acute urinary retention or obstruction

* accurate measurement of urinary output in critically ill patients

* aiding healing of open sacral or perineal wounds in incontinent patients

* selected perioperative situations, such as urologic surgery

* multiple traumatic injuries such as pelvic fractures

* patient comfort at end of life, if needed.

Insertion of indwelling urinary catheters is inappropriate for caregiver convenience or patient comfort except during end-of-life care. Catheters should be inserted only when absolutely necessary and removed as soon as they're no longer needed to reduce the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Consider alternatives such as intermittent catheterization and external catheters for males who can cooperate with treatment.

REFERENCES

APIC Implementation Guide: guide to preventing catheter associated urinary tract infections. 2014.http://apic.org/Resource_/EliminationGuideForm/6473ab9b-e75c-457a-8d0f-d57d32bc242b/File/APIC_CAUTI_web_0603.pdf.

Dumont C, Wakeman J. Preventing catheter-associated UTIs: survey report. Nursing2010. 2010;40(12):24â30. Ovid Full Text

Gould CV, Umscheid CA, Agarwal RK, Kuntz G, Pegues DA and the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC). Guideline for the prevention of catheter-associated urinary tract infections, 2009.http://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/cauti/001_cauti.html.

Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC). Guideline for prevention of catheter-associated urinary tract infections, 2009.http://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/cauti/001_cauti.html.

Lo E, Nicolle LE, Coffin SE, et al. SHEA/IDSA Practice Recommendation. Strategies to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections in acute care hospitals: 2014 update. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2014;35(5):464â479.

20. To reduce the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections, nurses should perform routine meatal care with soap and water during daily bathing.

True: 83% False: 17%

True. Best practices support using soap and water to clean the meatal surface around the catheter during daily routine catheter care. Cleaning the meatal surface with antiseptic solutions while a catheter is in place is ineffective for preventing CAUTI and not recommended.

For the initial discussion post, refer to the above article by Miller, Drummond and Carey:

Miller, J., Drummond Haye, D., & Carey, K. W. (2015). 20 QUESTIONS: Evidence-based practice or sacred cow? Nursing, 45(8), 46-55. doi:10.1097/01.NURSE.0000469234.84277.95

Question:

1) Choose one (1) nursing practice discussed in the article that is considered a âsacred cowâ and is not supported by the evidence.

2) Imagine that you are the RN responsible for changing practice on a nursing unit. Develop a plan you could implement to change nursing practice on your unit for the âsacred cowâ you have chosen. Provide specific details for the plan you develop.

sangriatermite542

1. What is the difference between the different patternsof selection: directional, stabilizing, anddiversifying?

2. How do bacteria acquire genetic variation and how doesthat differ from the mechanism by which humans acquirevariation?

3. What were the key observations made by Darwin todevelop the basic tenants of the theory of evolution? Has thistheory been tested?

4. What are the most common misconceptions about evolutionand why are they not valid arguments against evolution?

5. The key component of the theory of evolution is naturalselection. Define this process. Why is it commonly known asâsurvival of the fittestâ? What are examples of factors (selectivepressures) that drive evolution of populations?

6. What is the indirect evidence of evolution? What arehomologous and analogous structures? What is convergent evolution?How does similarity of proteins between different species supportthe idea of evolution?

7. Be able to explain why the following statement is true:Natural Selection works on individuals while evolution works onpopulations over generations. Or to put it another way: Individualsdo not evolve, populations do.

8. How can evolution explain the formation of complexstructures such as the eye or the flagella motor?

9. What causes variation in a species? To put this anotherway: all humans have the same genes, yet we do not look alike. Whatis the reason fro the phenotypic differences between individuals ofthe same species? What is genetic recombination?

10. What are the dangers of small populations of a speciesfrom a genetic and evolutionary standpoint? What is the bottleneckeffect?

11. How does speciation occur? What is the importance ofgeographic isolation? How is this illustrated in theGalapagos?

12. What is Darwinian Medicine and how does it help usbetter understand medical conditions?

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WGS160Y1 Study Guide - Reductionism, Heteronormativity, Frans De Waal

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