POPM 3240 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Multistage Sampling, Cluster Sampling, Sample Size Determination

19 views3 pages

sangriapig868

27 Mar 2018

School

Department

Course

Professor

For unlimited access to Class Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

Sampling unit is a group of individuals with things in common. The unit of concern is the individuals. Would not be a cluster sampling if interested in the group as unit. Often used for animal research because easier and cheaper to do. Similar to cluster sampling except taking a sampling of each cluster we selected. Sampling at both the cluster and individual level. Convenient when there are too many individuals in a cluster and when individuals in a cluster are very alike. Can be more cost-effective than other probability sampling method if sampling is done randomly. How tight the cl is around the study mean/proportion. Smaller range = more precise - more confident = better. Estimate the expected variance in the variable of interest. Estimate mean from expected population variance (sigma^2) Select level of confidence (e. g. 95% cl, alpha = 0. 05) Variance (means) = sum of (x - x bar) ^2 divide by n.

Related Questions

Question 1

Which of the following approaches to understanding and predicting consumer behavior depends primarily on the knowledge and experience of a firm's employees and its suppliers?

		Test marketing and price experiments
		Analysis of historical data.
		Direct consumer surveys.
		Expert opinion.

Question 2

In which of the following situations would reliance on expert opinion as a basis for a managerial decision be most preferred?

		When the product being marketed is relatively new.
		When the level of economic activity can have a significant effect on the demand for the firm's output.
		When the product can be packaged with a variety of price and quality combinations.
		When the business in question serves as a supplier of inputs to other businesses, especially in multi-product situations where other strategies may be prohibitively expensive.

Question 3

The approach to analyzing consumer behavior that asks consumers to rank and choose among different product attributes to reveal their relative valuation of different characteristics is called:

		conjoint analysis.
		contingent valuation.
		the hedonic estimation technique.
		a direct consumer survey.

Question 4

All of the following are limitations of direct consumer surveys except:

		the possibility of response biases because survey respondents may not want to reveal their true preferences.
		the possibility that the type of questions asked may unintentionally bias the respondent's answers.
		the likelihood that respondents will deliberately and systematically mislead interviewers.
		the possibility that consumers' responses may not reflect their actual behavior in the market place.

Question 5

Which of the following approaches to understanding and predicting consumer behavior does not actually solicit any information from potential customers?

		Expert opinion.
		Test marketing.
		Analysis of historical data.
		Conjoint analysis.

Question 6

Data collected on a sample of individuals with different characteristics at a specific point in time are called:

		panel data.
		cross-section data.
		time series data.
		none of the above.

Question 7

Which of the following approaches to understanding and predicting consumer behavior provides the most insight into how consumers can be expected to respond in an actual market setting?

		Test marketing.
		Conjoint analysis.
		Expert opinion.
		Analysis of historical data.

Question 8

An approach to analyzing consumer behavior in which consumer reaction to different prices is analyzed in a laboratory situation or a test market is called:

		non-price experiments.
		focus groups.
		price experiments.
		none of the above.

Question 9

Data collected on the same observation unit at a number of points in time are called:

		panel data.
		time series data.
		cross-section data.
		none of the above.

Question 10

A measure of how much the coefficient would vary in regressions based on different samples is called:

		F-statistic.
		standard error of the estimated coefficient.
		t-statistic.
		partial F-statistic.

Question 11

The test statistic used to test the hypothesis of whether a regression coefficient is significantly different from zero, holding all other independent variables constant, is called a(n):

		t-test.
		F-test.
		multicollinearity test.
		autocorrelation test.

Question 12

Regression analysis that analyzes the relationship between one dependent variable and several independent variables is called:

		cluster analysis.
		correlation analysis.
		multiple regression analysis.
		simple regression analysis.

Question 13

The ratio of the regression coefficient to its standard error is called:

		F-statistic.
		t-statistic.
		coefficient of determination.
		partial F-statistic.

Question 14

The coefficient of determination will range between what values?

		-1 and +1
		0 and 1
		-3 and +3
		none of the above

Question 15

The range of values in which we can be confident that the true regression coefficient lies within a given degree of probability is called a:

		confidence interval.
		logistic regression.
		prediction interval.
		none of the above.

Question 16

The estimated regression equation is Y = 10 + 2.5X, if X =0 than the predicted value of Y is equal to

		2.5
		7.5
		12.5
		10

crimsoncamel287

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

POPM 3240 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Multistage Sampling, Cluster Sampling, Sample Size Determination

Document Summary

Get access

Related Documents

POPM 3240 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Multistage Sampling, Type I And Type Ii Errors, Brucellosis

POPM 3240 Lecture Notes - Lecture 6: Clinical Trial, Simple Random Sample, Confidence Interval

POPM 3240 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Nonprobability Sampling, Sampling Frame, Cluster Sampling

Related Questions