BIOL 4105 Chapter : 7 5 12 Cestodes

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azuremammoth471

15 Mar 2019

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7/5/12: pseudophyllidian cestodes, onchosphere: coracidium, 2 metacestodes for all pseudophyllidians, procercoid in first intermediate host, free-swimming onchosphere. Has 3 pairs of hooks to aid in penetration. Changes to procercoid in the 1st intermediate host: plerocercoid- 2nd intermediate eats the copepod- a fish. Procercoid aided by 3 pairs of hooks in cercomes penetrates gut, goes intot he muscle and other tissues of the seonc host and turns into a plerocercoid. Solid cyst or membrane bound sac: solid tetrathyridium, cysticercus types, cysticercus- bladder worm. Membrane of cyst is germinal tissue which gave rise to the scolex: coenurus- one fluid filled cyst with several inverted scolices, each on a stalk. This gives rise to several inverted scoleces, each of which will become an individual tape in the gi tract of the definitive host: hydatid cyst, 2 kinds, most complex and dangerous metacestode form.

Related Questions

HI HELP PLEASE I NEED ANSWERS TO ALL QUESTIONS PLEASE THANKS

1. during inflamation fluid will passively diffuse out of blod vessels into the nearby infected tissue. This implies all of the following EXCEPT

a.the osmolarity of the fluid surrounding infected tissues is higher than the plasma b the surrounding tissue will swell with excessive fluids c near by cappilaries have become more pearmeable d B-lymphocyte will differeniate to become plasma cell

2. which of the following best describe the qualities of most antigens?

a macromolecules that are foreign to the host b atomic elements that are not normally present in the human body c macromolecules tah tare produced by the host organism d atomic elements that are harmful or toxic

3. an adbantages to adaptive immunity is

a its memory cell that provide quicker larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen b its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure c the ability for its individul cells to respond to many differnt pathogens d the use of antibodies that cause cells lysis and kill invading cells

4, an advantages of innate immunity is

a its a barrier taht prevent pathogens from entering into the body b the specifcity of its individual cell which specialize in the removal on one type of antigen c the numerous step in the activation of its cell that can prevent autoimmune disease d the use of the antibodies to cause cell lysis and kill invading cell

5. B- lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune sys for all of the following reason but one Which of the following is NOT one part of reason B lyphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity?

a they produce memory cell when activated b their receptors will bind to only one antigen c they require costimulation from an activated T helper cell d thet are a first line of defense that can begin killing

6. Over lap in the innate and adaptive immune sys is seen in all of the following examples but one Which of the following examples does NOT illustrate the over lap of innate and adaptive immune resposes ??? adendritic cell presenting antigen on their MHC II proteins to T helper cells b macrophage becoming activated macrophages in response to cytokines realesed by T helper cells c natural killer cell causing of an abnoraml host cell lacking MHC proteins d Plasma cell that produce large amounts of IgE that will ultimetly allow mast cell to relase histamine

7. Which of the following examples below describe an autoimmune disease? a infection and death of T helper cells bya virus resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity b realse of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine realse result is muscle paralysis c antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of hte motor end palte resulting in muscle weakness.d uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by natural killer cell.

8. Which of he following does NOT describe actions of interferon IFN? a virally infected cell can release interferon which attracts natural killer cell to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell b IFN binds to normal uninfected cell stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti viral proteins c IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed bt phagocytosis d IFN can penetrate the virla capsid and destroy the virus

1. Humans have the scientific name Homo sapiens. We are members of the family Pongidae, in the order Primates, in the class Mammalia, in the phylum Chordata. Based only on this information, which of the following is not a correct statement?

a. The speciation event (lineage-splitting) that generated the genus Homo occurred earlier than the speciation event that generated the species H. sapiens.

b. The most inclusive of these taxonomic groups is Chordata.

c. The genus Homo might have as many species as are in the entire family Pongidae.

d. There can be no other species in the genus Homo.

e. All mammals must be Chordates.

2. Endotherms differ from ectotherms in that:

a. Environmental temperature has little effect on the energy budget of endotherms but a strong effect on the energy budget of ectotherms.

b. An endotherm's metabolic rate is not affected by temperature whereas the metabolism of an ectotherm has a Q10 of 2-3.

c. Endotherms are vertebrates and ectotherms are invertebrates.

d. On average, endotherms are much better sprinters (i.e., can run faster for short distances) than ectotherms.

e. Endotherms are much better able to support endurance exercise than ectotherms.

3. You measure oxygen consumption of a lizard at three temperatures, as follows: 18 Â°C: 0.090 ml O2/min 23 Â°C: 0.135 ml O2/min 28 Â°C: 0.200 ml O2/min From these data you calculate the Q10 to be:

a. 1.8

b. 2.0

c. 2.2

d. 2.5

e. none of these are correct.

4. What is the best description of how evolution by selection (natural or artificial) works?

a. mutation generates variation randomly, sex makes new combinations of genes randomly, and selection picks the best ones for reproduction.

b. selection leads to non-random mutation to make useful new alleles, which are then combined by sex.

c. exposure to environmental factors leads to non-random mutations that improve fitness.

d. through selection, mutations occur in those genes that will improve fitness.

e. mutation generates random new alleles, and sex combines them in ways that select the best for future generations.

5. Which of the following is a correct match between a major lineage and its characteristics?

a. Archaea: extremophiles, ribosomes, RNA as genetic material, no nuclear membrane

b. Eukarya: mitochondria, DNA as genetic material, photosynthetic or chemohetrotrophic

c. Bacteria: mitochondria, DNA as genetic material, no nuclear membrane

d. Eumetazoa: extremophiles, ribosomes, DNA as genetic material, nuclear membrane, chemoheterotrophic

e. Protostomes: triploblastic, eucoelomate, blastopore becomes anus, indeterminate cleavage

6. Which of the following statements about animal life history events is correct?

a. Being multicellular requires a larval stage in the life cycle.

b. Mutation is sufficient to produce considerable genetic variation between different tissues in an individual.

c. Senescence is defined by slow, constant decline in survival as individuals get older.

d. Different cell types are formed when different but specific portions of the zygoteâs DNA are lost from the different germ layers during development.

e. In an individual, the only cells that differ genetically from other cells are gametes.

7. Which of the following statements about terrestrial vertebrates is correct?

a. Jaws evolved from paired appendages, which in turn evolved because they improved swimming ability.

b. Legs evolved from fins after early fishlike vertebrates invaded the land.

c. Jaws and inner ear bones evolved from gill arches, and leglike appendages evolved under selection for aquatic locomotion.

d. Viviparity (giving birth to well-developed young instead of laying eggs) was vital to the ability to reproduce on land without returning to the water.

e. Lungs for breathing air evolved after early fishlike vertebrates invaded the land (the first land vertebrates had to depend on gills for breathing air)

8. The essential features of a hydrostatic skeleton include:

a. antagonistic muscles.

b. a non-deformable fluid-filled space

c. flexible joints.

d. compressible material capable of changing volume

e. all of the above (a) â (d) are correct.

9. You are a Peace Corps volunteer physician in a developing country. You notice that some of the villages you visit have a high incidence of a parasitic disease, but other nearby villages are unaffected. Investigating you find the villages with disease are in wet areas with lots of snails and frogs, while the disease-free villages are in drier places but have lots of insects and mice. From this information, what might you reasonably conclude about the type of parasite responsible for the disease?

a. Itâs a trematode (these need mollusks as intermediate hosts).

b. Itâs a nematode (these are vectored mainly by frogs).

c. Itâs an apicomplexan parasite (these require wet areas and enter the skin through standing water).

d. Itâs a trypanosome (these are transmitted by mammal bites).

e. The information doesnât provide useful clues about the type of parasite.

10. Which of the following pairs of primary diagnostic characters is correctly matched with taxonomic groups?

a. circulatory system vs. water vascular system: Nematoda vs. Echinodermata

b. schizocoely vs. enterocoely: Radiata vs. Bilateria

c. pharyngeal slits vs. polyp and medusa: Chordata vs. Cnidaria

d. gastrovascular cavity vs. complete gut: Cnidaria vs. Cestoda

e. hemocoel vs. contractile vacuole: apicomplexans vs. rhizopoda

Please provide explanation too.

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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BIOL 4105 Chapter : 7 5 12 Cestodes

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