BIOL 1001 Chapter : Chapter 2 Outline 1

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15 Mar 2019

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Calories: measure of energy in food, measured by a bomb calorimeter , food is put in water and burned. The amount of heat is measured in calories: calorie value determined by amount of heat released and transferred to water when food is burned. Your body uses energy for three purposes: basic physiologic functions [basal metabolism]: breathing, blood circulation, tissue repair, to power physical activity, to process food you eat. Basal metabolism [bmr: minimum energy expended resting, awake, ~60-70% of total energy needs, energy for maintaining a heartbeat, respiration, body temperature, amount needed varies between individuals. Influences on basal metabolism: body surface area, body composition (muscle vs. fat, gender (males have more muscle, body and environmental temperature. Increases energy expenditure beyond bmr: varies widely among individuals, easily altered, more activity, more energy burned. Lack of activity is one of the major causes of obesity.

Related Questions

11. Which of the following is an attribute of a scientifically literate person?

A. Creates templates for understanding

B. Constructs hypothetical arguments for discussion

C. Respects the rights of self determination

D. Uses scientific evidence to understand the natural world

E. Reports on social phenomena consistently

12. Which of the following does not contribute to the Calorie intake of a person?

A. Protein

B. Carbohydrate

C. Fat

D. Alcohol

E. Water

13. Which of the following is not a technique used to measure body composition?

A. Skin-fold calipers

B. Bod PodÃ

C. Body mass index

D. Hydrostatic weighing

E. Light absorption technique

14. Which of the following behavioral techniques supports healthy body weight changes?

A. Feasting

B. Fasting

C. Goal setting and a plan

D. Eating vegetables and meat

E. Regularly measuring body composition

15. The purpose of the warm-up is to:

A. Slowly increase the pulse rate to an aerobic level.

B. Facilitate vascular changes (splenic shunt) to accommodate aerobic exercise.

C. Gear up the energy metabolism, i.e., increase the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the working muscle, and raise the temperature to an optimal level for energy production.

D. Increase the elasticity of the muscle fibers, which helps to prevent muscle, tendon, ligament, and joint injuries, as well as improve muscle contraction and preserve muscle glycogen in addition to reducing the amount of lactic acid build-up in the muscles.

E. All of the above

16. Which of the following reflects an improvement in cardiovascular health resulting from regular engagement in aerobic exercise?

A. Increased lean body mass

B. Increase in high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL)

C. Stress relief

D. Improvement in sleep pattern

E. Reduced risk for developing certain types of cancer

17. The purpose of a cool-down is to:

A. slowly decrease pulse rate.

B. decrease core body temperature.

C. slowly constrict blood vessels.

D. continue adequate supply of blood to the brain, and facilitate removal of metabolic waste products from the muscles.

E. All of the above

18. A person trying to gain lean body mass has:

A. increased fluid needs.

B. decreased fat needs.

C. altered fitness needs.

D. increased protein and strength training needs.

E. decreased electrolyte needs.

19. Vitamin A in the form of _____ is used to treat acne.

A. retinol

B. retinal

C. retinoic acid

D. beta-carotene

E. lycopene

20. Which of the following is a genetic disease for which a low intake of copper is a component of treatment?

A. Pellagra

B. Wilsonâs disease

C. Hemochromatosis

D. Beriberi

E. Goiter

21. Which of the following nutrients is used to treat scurvy?

A. Folate

B. Riboflavin

C. Vitamin C

D. Niacin

E. Vitamin D

22. Which of the following groups is at highest risk for hemolytic anemia?

A. Premature infants

B. Elderly people who do not get exposure to sunlight

C. Pregnant women

D. Teenagers who do not drink enough water

E. Someone who does not consume animal meat or products

23. Iron deficiency causes:

A. microcytic normochromic anemia.

B. macrocytic hypochromic anemia.

C. microcytic hypochromic anemia.

D. macrocytic normochromic anemia.

E. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia.

24. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is caused by a deficiency of:

A. iron.

B. zinc.

C. chromium.

D. choline.

E. molybdenum.

25. Which of the following is required for the absorption of vitamin B₁₂?

A. A coenzyme

B. Intrinsic factor

C. Vitamin C

D. Bile acids

E. None of the above

26. Which nutrient potentiates the action of insulin?

A. Magnesium

B. Fluoride

C. Chromium

D. Selenium

E. Iodine

27. Which mineral is a central component of vitamin B₁₂?

A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Cobalt

D. Zinc

E. Molybdenum

28. Iodine is a component of:

A. hemoglobin.

B. myoglobin.

C. intrinsic factor.

D. insulin.

E. thyroxine.

29. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the diagnosis of a nutritional deficiency?

A. Dietary records should demonstrate low intake for that nutrient.

B. Blood levels should demonstrate high body levels of the nutrient.

C. Tissue levels should demonstrate low body levels of the nutrient.

D. Nutrient supplementation should correct the deficiency symptoms.

E. Clinical deficiency symptoms should be compatible with a low dietary intake.

30. Vitamin C helps maintain tissue integrity by:

A. neutralizing foreign proteins.

B. creating an alkaline cell environment.

C. recognizing cell boundaries.

D. forming collagen to bind cells together.

E. increasing inflammation

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6. The site for countercurrent multiplier and exchange in the nephron is ________.
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

7. The function of the kidneys is evaluated by measuring the
a. tubular reabsorption b. tubular secretion c. glomerular filtration rate

8. Abnormal amount of leukocytes in urine is termed _____.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. nitrituria

9. In diabetes mellitus the clinical term for the abnormal urinalysis is called ________.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. proteinuria

10. The possible cause of increase ____________ in urine is liver pathology o gallstones.
a. bile b. erythrocytes c. nitrites d. glucose e. protein

11. Proteinuria is caused by increase glomerular permeability due to kidney trauma, heavy mental, toxins, exertion, hypertension or glomerular nephritis.
a. True b. False

12. The normal pH of urine ranges from _____ to _____.
a. 2.2, 4.5 b. 10.3, 13.5 c. 8.0, 10.2 d. 4.5, 8.0 e. 6.0, 7.0

13. The average specific gravity of urine is slightly higher than 1.000 because the solutes it contains.
a. True b. False

14. __________ is the term for the normal smell of fresh urine.
a. Asparagus b. Nitrites c. Urinoid d. Ammonia

15. The concentration of this pigment in urine change the color of it.
a. Urinoid b. Nitrites c. Urobilin d. Calcium

16. The failure of a kidney to develop is termed _________________.
a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidney
c. supernumerary kidney d. pelvic kidney

17 Renal ptosis refers to the ___________ movement of the kidney within the abdominal cavity.
a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior

18. Renal failure refers to the diminish o absent renal function caused by the destruction of about ___ of the kidney.
a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 90%

19. Renal calculus may occur from crystallized glucose after high levels in blood.
a. True b. False

20. An untreated UTI that spread to the kidneys is termed ____________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

21. Pain is an associated symptom of an UTI, and this is termed as __________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

22. Incontinence refers to ___________ whereas retention refers to____________
a. inability to involuntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally.
b. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to voluntary control urination
c. inability to voluntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally
d. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to involuntary control urination

23. All of the following are physical characteristics of urine except:
a. Color and transparency b. Odor c. pH d. specific gravity e. taste

24. Preformed water includes the water absorbed from food and drink whereas metabolic water includes the water from cellular respiration and dehydration.
a. True b. False

25. Sensible water los is not measured. In contrast insensible water loss is measured and includes sweat and transpiration.
a. True b, False

26. ____________ water loss is dependent upon the degree of hydration and is hormonally regulated in the tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative
27. ___________ water loss is a loss of water that always occur regales of the state of hydration of the body.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative

28. Fluid is lost from the body through the following normal mechanism except:
a. breathing b. sweating c. defecation d. urination e. vomiting

29. Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬Â¬The stimuli that activates the thirst center include all of the following except:
a. decreased salivary secretions b. distention of the stomach
c. increased blood osmolality d. decreased blood pressure

30. Stimuli for inhibiting the thirst center are produced when fluid intake is greater than fluid output.
a. True b. False

31. Fluid balance is regulated by monitoring blood volume, blood pressure, and blood plasma osmolarity.
a. True b. False

32. This electrolyte imbalance can lead to confusion, coma, paralysis of breathing muscles, and death.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

33. _____________ may cause muscle weakness and irregular heart beat that can lead to cardiac arrest.
a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia

34. Numbness, tingling, increase heat rate, and muscle spasm that can lead to tetany is caused by _____.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

35. If a patient needs IV fluids like 0.9% saline solution it means the solution contains 0.9 gr of _______ to every 100 ml of sterile water.
a. glucose chloride b. calcium chloride c. potassium chloride d. sodium chloride

36. Which of the following individual will be more vulnerable to dehydration?
a. Young adults b. Middle-aged adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. c & d

37. Diabetes insipidus refers to:
a. hypersecretion of insulin b. hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone
c. hyposecretion of insulin d. hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone
e. none of the above

38. During vomiting the major loss is ___________ whereas in diarrhea there is an extensive loss of ________.
a. hydrochloric acid (HCl), bicarbonate (HCO3) b. bicarbonate (HCO3), hydrochloric acid (HCl)
c. bicarbonate (HCO3), glucose d. hydrochloric acid (HCl), sodium

39. Lactic acidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

40. Ketoacidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

41. In respiratory alkalosis, respiratory rate increases and blood __________ _____________.
a. CO2 increases b. CO2 decreases
c. O2 increases d. O2 decreases e. none of the above

42. Metabolic acidosis compensate with _____________ ______________.
a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis e. metabolic alkalosis e. none of the above

43. The step in the digestive process that deals with a series of catabolic steps in which complex food molecules are broken down into their chemical building blocks by enzymes secreted into the lumen of the alimentary tract is called
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

44. ________________ is the passage of digestive end products from the lumen of the GI tract by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph.
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

45. In which part of the digestive tract is chemical digestion essentially completed?
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. small intestine e. large intestine

46. The organ that carries most metabolic function in the body is the
a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. pancreas

47. The main function of these organs is propulsion: peristaltic waves move food bolus to stomach accomplishing the phase of deglutition
a. Mouth and associated accessory organs b. Pharynx and esophagus
c. Stomach d. Small intestine e. Large intestine

48. Which hormone will be secreted especially if the bolus contains proteins?
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

49. The following target organs are stimulated by secretin except:
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. gallbladder

50. The stimulus of chime containing amino acids and fatty acids entering the small intestine releases ____________.
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

51. The cells that produce intrinsic factor, important in the absorption of B12, is the ______ cells.
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

52. The most numerous of the secretory cells within the gastric glands, which produce zymogen are:
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

53. The following are functions of hydrochloric acid except:
a. activates pepsinogen b. kills microorganism
c. prevents ulceration of the stomach d. denatures proteins

54. Barrett esophagus refers to an advance case of GERD in which the epithelium changes from columnar secretory to stratified squamous.
a. True b. False

55. Gastric and duodenal ulcer are both peptic ulcers; the difference is that one occurs in the stomach and the other in the first part of the duodenum respectively.
a. True b. False

56. The following are common complication of advanced liver cirrhosis except:
a. jaundice b. edema c. ascites d. gastritis e. intense itching

57. Most cases of appendicitis occurs because fecal matter obstructs the appendix. As the inflammation worsens the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed as well.
A. True b. False

58. The majority of colorectal cancer appears in the following areas except:
a. descending colon b. sigmoid colon c. rectum d. proximal ileum

59. Polyps are outgrowths from the colon mucosa whereas diverticulosis are bulges in the intestinal lining.
a. True b. False

60. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder. The damage in the small intestine is the smooth muscle which interferes with absorption.
a. True b. False

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BIOL 1001 Chapter : Chapter 2 Outline 1

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