ECON 209 Chapter Notes - Chapter 29: Open Market Operation, Overnight Rate, Commercial Bank

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28 Mar 2016

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29. 1 how the bank of canada implements monetary policy: Bank of canada doesn"t specifically set the money supply, but rather targets it. For any given money demand curve, any central bank must choose between: targeting the money supply, targeting the interest rate. Two approaches to the implementation of money policy. Central bank targets the money supply- boc attempts to shift the ms curve directly and consequently the interest rate changes. However, the boc cannot directly control the money supply because its slope and position of md curve is uncertain. This is ineffective so the boc doesn"t use this method: the boc could in theory shift the ms curve by changing the amount of currency in circulation. It could buy/sell government securities in the financial markets. If 000 of government bonds are bought, the boc would increase its reserves by 000.

Related Questions

1. The Federal Funds Rate is set by the Federal Reserve on the first business day of each month by faxing the rate to the member banks of each Federal Reserve District.

A. True

B. False

2. The Federal Reserve is a single Central bank located on Wall Street in New York City.

A. True

B. False

3. Which of the following is NOT true about the Federal Reserve System?

A. Terms of service of the members of the Board of Governors are longer than the number of years that a two-term President of the United States would serve.

B. The Federal Reserve System is the nation's central bank and is comprised of 12 Federal Reserve Banks that serve as bankers' banks.

C. Some of the main functions of the Federal Reserve System include the authority to control the money supply, to issue currency, to set reserve requirements, and to hold reserves.

D. While Congress controls the actions of the Federal Reserve, the President has the authority to appoint and remove private banks from the Federal Reserve System.

4. Which of the following is NOT true about restrictive monetary policy?

A. A restrictive monetary policy seeks to raise the federal funds rate.

B. A restrictive monetary policy seeks to expand the money supply.

C. A restrictive monetary policy seeks to raise the Federal Funds Rate by selling government bonds or raising the reserve requirement ratio or increasing the discount rate.

D. A restrictive monetary policy is used when the government is concerned about suddenly increasing inflation.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true about contractionary fiscal policy?

A. Contractionary fiscal policy consists of reductions in government spending or increases in taxes.

B. Contractionary fiscal policy can include both reductions in government spending or increases in taxes.

C. Contractionary fiscal policy seeks to shift the Aggregate Demand curve to the right.

D. Contractionary fiscal policy is used when the government seeks to reduce suddenly surging inflation.

6. The Federal Reserve creates money by printing the amount of desired new money and distributing it via armored trucks and high-security railways to Federal Reserve District Banks.

A. True

B. False

7. If the Fed feared a looming recession was just around the corner, which of the following actions would it "NOT" consider?

A. The Fed would raise the discount rate.

B. In order to influence prevailing commercial interest rates to fall, the Fed would buy large amounts of government securities.

C. In order to expand the money supply (which influences prevailing commercial interest rates to fall), the Fed would either buy large volumes of government bonds, lower the reserve requirement or cut the discount rate.

D. The Fed would seek to expand the money supply because, in so doing, the federal funds rate would fall and that would stimulate commercial interest rates to fall.

8. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the ability of the Federal Reserve System to expand the money supply?

A. The Federal Reserve System uses the fractional nature of the banking system to create money in order to expand the money supply.

B. The money multiplier defines the relationship between new excess reserves throughout the banking system and the creation of money by banks in the system. It is calculated by dividing the number 1 by the Required Reserve Ratio. [1/rr].

C. If the required reserve ratio is 20%, then $80 billion in new excess reserves will create $400 billion in bank system lending throughout the entire banking system.

D. If the reserve requirement is 100%, then the banks can generate 100% in new excess reserves.

9. Which of the following is NOT true about the tools of monetary policy?

A. The Fed can alter the money supply through open market operations, changes in the reserve ratio or adjustments to the discount rate.

B. Lowering the reserve ratio would expand the money supply.

C. Raising the discount rate would restrict the money supply.

D. Adjusting the reserve requirement is the most important day-to-day method for controlling the nation's money supply.

10. If the Federal Reserve wishes to hold off a feared recession, it will sell large volumes of government bonds.

A. True

B. False

harlequincicada312

All the questions from "Output, Exchange Rates, Macroeconomic Policy, and Open-economy IS-LM-FX Model."

Please answer these questions completely. It is important to me.

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6. The TB (i.e., EX â IM) is part of the short-run spending equation. With sticky prices, what would be the effect on the TB with an increase (depreciation) of the home nation's exchange rate?

A. Consumers in the home nation would find it more expensive to buy domestic goods compared to foreign goods, and the trade balance would decrease.

B. Consumers in the home nation would cut back on both domestic and foreign goods and the trade balance would decrease.

C. Consumers in the home nation would increase spending on both domestic and foreign goods, and the trade balance would be unchanged.

D. Consumers in the home nation would increase spending on domestic goods and decrease spending on foreign goods, causing the trade balance to increase.

11. A shift to the left by the IS curve can be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT a(n):

A. decrease in government spending.

B. increase in taxes.

C. increase in the foreign interest rate.

D. decrease in future expected exchange rate Ee.

13. The LM curve will shift to the left, if there is a(n):

A. increase in money supply.

B. increase in interest rate.

C. decrease in money supply.

D. increase in output.

14. If taxes fall and foreign income falls, what will happen to output, ceteris paribus?

A. It will rise.

B. It will stay the same.

C. It will fall.

D. It is uncertain what will happen.

15. Using the IS-LM-FX framework, if we observe that income and interest rate both rise in the Eurozone, this could be the result of

A. contractionary monetary policy pursued by the European Central Bank.

B. expansionary monetary policy pursued by the Federal Reserve System (U.S. central bank).

C. a stock market crash in the Eurozone.

D. increases in government spending in the Eurozone.

18. Whenever U.S. government spending increases,

A. output will not change at all if the U.S. fixes the exchange rate of dollar against major currencies.

B. output will increase by a larger amount when dollar floats than when dollar pegs to other currencies.

C. output will increase by a smaller amount when dollar floats than when dollar pegs to other currencies.

D. output will not change at all since the U.S. adopts a flexible exchange rate.

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ECON 209 Chapter Notes - Chapter 29: Open Market Operation, Overnight Rate, Commercial Bank

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