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ECO-2023 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Marginal Utility, Substitute Good, Demand Curve

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FSU
Department
Economics
Course
ECO-2023
Professor
Brice

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Q: cynthia cooper was a member of the houston comets when they won the wnba"s first. A: no, according to economic theory we receive less marginal benefit, or utility, with each additional unit of something we have. For example, we receive less benefit from the third slice of pizza than we do from the first. This would also apply to winning championships as an athlete. This concept relates to the demand curve, because the demand curve demonstrates the concept of diminishing marginal benefit, or utility, as our quantity of something increases. This is reflected by our lower willingness to pay, which is equal to our marginal benefit, for a good as our quantity of the good increases . Now imagine that the market price of wings is . 50 per wing. A: your quantity demanded with a market price of . 50 is 3 wings. Consumer surplus is equal to the area above the market price and below the demand curve.

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Related Questions

1. The Houston Chronicle reported that in Houston, the average price of new homes has decreased, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold has increased. This situation could be explained by which one of the following: (draw curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in demand
  2. An Increase in supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

2. In another market, the average price of new homes fell, while at the same time, the number of new homes sold decreased. The situation would best be explained by (Draw the curves before answering)

  1. An Increase in Demand
  2. An Increase in Supply
  3. A Decrease in demand
  4. A Decrease in supply

3. A consumer is said to have achieved maximum total utility when:

  1. Purchases of Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of Good B.
  2. Purchases of the last dollar spent on Good A give the same satisfaction as purchases of the last dollar spent on Good B.
  3. The average purchases per dollar of Good A give the same satisfaction as the average purchases per dollar of Good B.
  4. The total utility derived from Good A is the same as the marginal utility derived from Good B.

4. You are given the following information about a firm's present output position: MPP (Marginal Physical Product) of Land = 12; MPP of Labor = 16; Price of Land = $2; Price of Labor = $4. With no additional money to spend, this firm should:

5. A firm achieves the least cost in production by substituting factors until

  1. their factor prices are equal
  2. their marginal products are equal to the factor prices
  3. their marginal products are each equal to zero
  4. the ratios of their marginal product equal the ratio of their prices
  5. none of the above

6.The economy is currently on its production possibilities frontier (PPF). A politician says that it is possible to get more of everything--more infrastructure, more schools, more national defense, more spending on social programs, and so on. The politician is

  1. correct if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  2. incorrect if he is assuming a rightward-shifting PPF.
  3. correct if he is assuming a PPF that does not change.
  4. none of the above

7. Assume your swimsuit business is at its maximum profit position, and one new change occurs: consumer incomes decrease. If swimsuits are normal goods, the equilibrium price of swimsuits will __________, and the CONSUMER surplus will ________.

  1. increase, increase
  2. decrease, decrease
  3. increase, decrease
  4. decrease, increase

8. Firms that shuts-down in the short-run still must pay:

  1. Marginal cost
  2. Variable cost
  3. Fixed cost
  4. Total cost

9. The term externalities refer to:

  1. Black-market economic activity.
  2. The impact on markets of imported goods.
  3. The costs and benefits of a market activity borne by a third party.
  4. The inequitable distribution of income.

10. If full external costs are not internalized, firms will tend to allocate more of society's scarce resources to produce than is societally warranted, and if full external benefits are not internalized, firms will allocate less of society's resources to produce than is societally justified. True/False.

11. Joe was very careful about smoking in his home until he bought a fire insurance policy. After buying the policy, he became careless. His attitude is: "I'm insured. What do I care if this place burns down; I'll just collect the money". Joe's attitude is an example of ______________.

12. Megatrust Bank had historically scrutinized loans very carefully and extended them, only to persons whom they considered very creditworthy. They made relatively few loans. However, after the government provided guarantees to sub-prime loans, Megatrust relaxed its standards and increased its loan volume. (And its default rate as well.) This is an example of _______________.

13. In the short-run, if a perfectly competitive firm finds itself operating at a loss, it will

  1. Reduce the size of its plant to lower fixed costs.
  2. Raise the price of its product.
  3. Shut down.
  4. Continue to operate as long as it covers its variable cost.

14. If income today is more equally distributed than it was in 1960, a Lorenz Curve depicting today's distribution would be

  1. More bowed and to the left of the 1960's curve.
  2. More bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.
  3. Less bowed and to the left of the 1960' curve.
  4. Less bowed and to the right of the 1960's curve.

15. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. As output increases, the average fixed cost becomes smaller and smaller.
  2. Average fixed cost does not change as output increases.
  3. The marginal cost curve intersects the average fixed cost curve at its minimum point.
  4. When marginal cost is greater than average fixed cost, average fixed cost increases.
  5.  

16. A firm in any of the market structures we have studied will maximize its profit (or minimizes its loss) when its

  1. Average costs are at a minimum
  2. Marginal revenue and marginal cost are the same.
  3. Marginal revenue is less than marginal cost.
  4. Marginal revenue is zero.

17. If the demand for a good increase, when the price of other good increases, these goods are

  1. Capital goods
  2. Substitute goods
  3. Complementary goods
  4. Luxury goods

18. Which of the following pairs of products are complementary goods?

  1. mobile phones and laptops
  2. pens and pencils
  3. sugar and artificial sweeteners
  4. radios and television
  5. toothbrushes and toothpaste

19. The amount of a good that is given up to produce another good is:

  1. Scarcity
  2. Specialization
  3. Opportunity cost
  4. Trade
  5. Efficiency

20. The most important characteristic of the equilibrium price is that it:

  1. Guarantees that producers earn a profit.
  2. Increases the quantity demanded.
  3. Clears the market.
  4. Decreases the quantity supplied.

21. Rank the following market structures based on the number of participating firms: From the fewest number of firms to the most number of firms:

  1. Oligopoly
  2. Perfect Competition
  3. Monopoly
  4. Monopolistic Competition

22. If firms in a monopolistically competitive market are earning economic profits which of the following scenarios would best reflect the change facing incumbent firms as the market adjusts to its new equilibrium?

  1. an increase in demand
  2. a decrease in demand
  3. a downward shift in their marginal cost curve
  4. an upward shift in their marginal cost curve


23. If labor in Mexico is less productive than labor in the United States in all areas of production, 

  1. neither nation can benefit from trade
  2. Mexico can benefit from trade but the United States cannot
  3. Mexico will not have a comparative advantage in any good
  4. both nations can benefit from trade

24. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. The typical monopolistically competitive firm could reduce its average total cost if it produced more output.
  2. Monopolistically competitive firms advertise to increase the elasticity of the demand curve they face.
  3. Expensive advertising might help consumers if it is a signal that the product is good.
  4. Brand names acquired at great cost might help consumers by assuring quality.

25. Suppose the state of Wyoming passes a law that increases the tax on cigarettes. As a result, smokers who live in Wyoming start purchasing their cigs in surrounding states. Which of the following principles does this best illustrate:

  1. people respond to incentives
  2. rational people think at the margin
  3. a trademark can make everyone better off
  4. markets are usually a good way to organize economic activity

Managers of a monopoly under rate of return regulation have an incentive to


a. underestimate the firm's costs.

b. exaggerate the firm's costs.

c. minimize the monopoly's deadweight loss.

d. exaggerate the firm's profit.

e. earn zero economic profit.


Which of the following is correct?
i. All linear demand curves have a constant slope and a constant price elasticity of demand.
ii. The price elasticity of demand changes while moving along a downward-sloping linear demand curve.
iii. The magnitude of the slope of all linear demand curves is equal to the price elasticity of demand.


a. iii only.

b. ii only.

c. i, ii, and iii.

d. i only.

e. i and ii.


________ natural monopolies is a commonly used, potential solution to the problems presented by natural monopolies.


a. Giving incentives to firms to become

b. Regulating

c. Breaking up firms that are

d. Outlawing price discrimination by

e. Refusing to grant patents to


In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm


a. must suffer an economic loss.

b. must earn an economic profit.

c. might make an economic profit, incur an economic loss, or make a normal profit.

d. must make either an economic profit or a normal profit.

e. must earn a normal profit.

To determine if a market is an oligopoly, we need to determine if


a. cartels are legal in their market.

b. the firms are so few that they recognize their mutual interdependencies.

c. the firms make identical or differentiated products.

d. there are many firms in the market.

e. the market's HHI is less than 900.


Increasing marginal returns to labor


a. occur only when there are increasing marginal returns to capital.

b. are the result of specialization and division of labor in the production process.

c. describe the portion of a total product curve where the marginal product is negative.

d. mean that two workers produce less than twice the output of one worker.

e. occur when a particularly efficient worker is employed.

The return to entrepreneurship, which is what the firm's owner could earn running another business, is known as


a. entrepreneur's profit.

b. economic profit.

c. excessive profit.

d. accounting profit.

normal profit.

Both price supports and a price floor can


a. decrease the price below the equilibrium price.

b. increase consumer surplus.

c. create a deadweight loss.

d. decrease output below the equilibrium quantity.

e. have no effect on producer surplus.

In economics, cost is ________, and benefit is ________.

a. the amount of money that you pay for something; the amount of money that someone else is willing to pay you
b. what you must give up to get something; what you are willing to give up to get it
c. the amount of money that you pay on the margin; the amount of money that you receive on the margin
d. what you are willing to give up to get it; what you must give up to get something
e. what you are willing to pay on the margin; what the government pays you when you are unemployed or retired

If a substitute good is easy to find, then demand for a good is


a. unit elastic.

b. perfectly inelastic.

c. elastic.

d. inelastic.

e. Substitutes don't have any effect on elasticity.







_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________