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BIOL 2900 Midterm: exam Chapter 17 immunization and immune testing

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School
York University
Department
Biology
Course
BIOL 2900
Professor
Malini Persaud

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Document Summary

Acquire temporary immunity through transfer of antibodies formed by other individuals or animal first used to immunize an individual against smallpox (variola) with material taken from a patient. Administration of any antigenic inoculum which are called vaccines. Administering antigens to a patient so that the patient actively mounts an adaptive immunity response. Most effective and cost efficient way to control infectious diseases. Low titer: antibody production increased by administering more booster immunization. Attenuated (modified live) vaccine: use pathogens with reduced virulence, can result in mild infections, active microbes stimulate a strong immune response - replicate in body. Cons: modified microbes may retain enough residual virulence to cause disease in susceptible individuals (immunocompromised, can cross placenta and damage fetus. Inactivated (killed) vaccines: safer than live vaccines : cant replicate, revert, mutate or retain virulence, killed vaccines work by stimulating an antibody response. As they cant replicate boosters are required to achieve full immunity.

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Related Questions

1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.