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Theme: Aristotle distinguished between "natural" and "unnatural" trading and was concerned about the effects of the latter on society.

Question: Does modern society take into account Aristotle's distinctions (and concerns) between these different kinds of exchange? (Provide instances to support your position that his is both correct and incorrect or both, as appropriate). To put it another way, do we actually experience the Aristotelian nightmare, or were his concerns unfounded?

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