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26 Jul 2018

QUESTION 3 (CORPORATE GOVERNANCE) (20)
Effective corporate governance places a great deal of emphasis on the board of directors. Although the board’s activities should be separate from those of management which is usually responsible for day to day functions of the enterprise, they (the board) must take ultimate responsibility for the activities of the enterprise. Some of these responsibilities may be better achieved by delegation of certain matters to committees of the board, but the ultimate responsibility must rest with the board.
YOU ARE REQUIRED TO:
a. Outline the general functions of the board of directors (use the King Report as a guidance).(10)
b. Identify 7 board committees which should be in place at a large listed chemical manufacturing company. (7)
c. identify the board committees which should consist of only non –executive directors. (3)

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Bunny Greenfelder
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28 Jul 2018

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1) The subarea of finance where you need to value uncertain cash flows occurring at different points in time is:

a. investments

b. corporate finance

c. capital markets

d. bank management.

e. all of the above subareas

2) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. One advantage of forming a corporation is that equity investors are usually exposed to less liability than they would be in a partnership.

b. Corporations face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.

c. One disadvantage of operating a business as a sole proprietor is that the firm is subject to double taxation, because taxes are levied at both the firm level and the Owner level.

d. It is generally less expensive to form a corporation than a proprietorship because, with a proprietorship, extensive legal documents ace required.

e. If a partnership goes bankrupt, each partner is exposed to liabilities only up to the amount of his or her investment in the business.

3) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Corporations generally face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.

b. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability.

c. It is usually easier to transfer ownership in a corporation than in a partnership.

d. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability, but this factor is offset by the tax advantages of incorporation.

e. Less of a corporation's income is generally subject to federal taxes.

4) The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm interested in serving its stockholders should be to:

a. Maximize its expected total corporate income.

b. Maximize its expected EPS.

c. Minimize the chances of losses.

d. Maximize the stock price per share over the long run, which is the stock’s intrinsic value.

e. Maximize the stock price on a specific target date.

5) Which of the following is correct?

a. In most corporations, the CFO ranks above the CEO.

b. By Law in most states, the chairman of the board must also be the CEO.

c. It is possible for a person to simultaneously serve as CEO and chairman of the board, though many corporate control experts believe it is bad to vest both offices in the same person.

d. The CFO generally reports to the firm's chief accounting officer, who is normally the controller.

e. The CFO is responsible for raising capital and for making sure that capital expenditures are desirable, but he or she is not responsible for the validity of the financial statements, as the controller and the auditors have that responsibility.

6) The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm trying to best serve its stockholders should be to

a. Maximize managers' own interests, which are by definition consistent with maximizing shareholders' wealth.

b. Maximize the firm’s expected EPS, which must also maximize the firm’s price per share.

c. Minimize the firm’s risks because most stockholders dislike risk in turn, this will maximize the firm’s stock price.

d. Use a well-structured managerial compensation package to reduce conflicts that may exist between stockholders and managers.

e. Since it is impossible to measure a stock's intrinsic value, the text states that it is better for managers to attempt to maximize the current stock price than its intrinsic value.

7) Which of the following actions would be most likely to reduce potential conflicts of interest between stockholders and bondholders?

a. Compensating managers with stock options.

b. Financing risky projects with additional debt.

c. The threat of hostile takeovers.

d. The use of covenants in bond agreements that limit the firm’s use of additional debt and constrain managers' actions.

e. Abolishing the Security and Exchange Commission.

8) Which of the following actions would be most likely to reduce potential conflicts of interest between stockholders and managers?

a. Pay managers large cash salaries and give them no stock options.

b. Change the corporation's formal documents to make it easier for outside investors to acquire a controlling interest in the firm through a hostile takeover.

c. Beef up the restrictive covenants in the firm’s debt agreements.

d. Eliminate a requirement that members of the board of directors must hold a high percentage of their personal wealth in the firm’s stock.

e. For a firm that compensates managers with stock options, reduce the time before options are vested, i.e., the time before options can be exercised and the shares that are received can be sold.

9) Which of the following mechanisms would be most likely to help motivate managers to act in the best interests of shareholders?

a. Decrease the use of restrictive covenants in bond agreements.

b. Take actions that reduce the possibility of a hostile takeover.

c. Elect a board of directors tlta.t allows managers greater freedom of action.

d. Increase the proportion of executive compensation that comes from stock options and reduce the proportion that is paid as cash salaries.

e. Eliminate a requirement that members of the board of directors have a substantial investment in the firm’s stock.

10) Which of the following is correct?

a. Potential conflicts between stockholders and bondholders are increased if a firm's bonds are convertible into its common stock.

b. Because bankruptcy requires that corporate bondholders be paid in full before stockholders receive anything, bondholders generally prefer to see corporate managers invest in high risk/high return projects rather than low risk/low return projects.

c. There is no good reason to expect a firm’s stockholders and bondholders to react differently to the types of assets in which it invests.

d. Stockholders should generally be happier than bondholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safe projects with lower expected returns.

e. Bondholders should generally be happier titan stockholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safe projects with lower expected returns.

11) You recently sold 100 shares of Microsoft stock to your brother at a family reunion. At the reunion your brother gave you a check for the stock and you gave your brother the stock certificates. Which of the following best describes this transaction?

a. This is an example of a direct transfer of capital

b. This is an example of a primary market transaction.

c. This is an example of an exchange of physical assets.

d. This is an example of a money market transaction.

e. This is an example of a derivative market transaction.

12) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The NYSE does not exist as a physical location. Rather it represents a loose collection of dealers who trade stock electronically.

b. An example of a primary market transaction would be your uncle transferring 100 shares of Walmart stock to you as a birthday gift.

c. Capital market instruments include both long-term debt and common stocks.

d. If your uncle in New York sold 100 shares of Microsoft through his broker to an investor in Los Angeles, this would be a primary market transaction.

e. While the two frequently perform similar functions, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise large blocks of capital from investors.

13) Which of the following is a primary market transaction?

a. You sell 200 shares of IBM stock on the NYSE through your broker.

b. You buy 200 shares of IBM stock from your brother. The trade is not made through a broker--you just give him cash and he gives you the stock.

c. IBM issues 2,000,000 shares of new stock and sells them to the public through an investment banker.

d. One financial institution buys 200,000 shares of IBM stock from another institution. An investment banker arranges the transaction.

e. IBM sells 2,000.000 shares of treasury stock to its employees when they exercise options that were granted in prior years.

14) Money Markets are markets for:

a. Foreign currencies.

b. Consumer automobile loans.

c. Common stocks.

d. Long-term bonds.

e. Short-term debt securities such as Treasury bills and commercial paper.

15) You recently sold 200 shares of Disney stock, and the transfer was made through a broker. This is an example of:

a. A money market transaction.

b. A primary market transaction.

c. A secondary market transaction.

d. A futures market transaction.

e. An over-the-counter market transaction.

16) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Hedge funds are legal in Europe and Asia, but they are not permitted to operate in the United States.

b. Hedge funds are legal in the United States, but they are not permitted to operate in Europe or Asia.

c. Hedge funds have more in common with investment banks than with any other type of financial institution.

d. Hedge funds have more in common with commercial banks than with any other type of financial institution.

e. Hedge funds are not as highly regulated as most other types of financial institutions.

17) Which of the following factors statements is correct?

a. The New York Stock Exchange is an auction market, and it has a physical location.

b. Home mortgage loans are traded in the money market.

c. If an investor sells shares of stock through a broker, then it would be a primary market transaction.

d. Capital markets deal only with common stocks and other equity securities.

e. While the distinctions are blurring, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise capital from other parties.

18) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The term "IPO" stands for Introductory Price Offered, and it is the price at which shares of a new company are offered to the public.

b. IPO prices are generally established by the market, and buyers of the new stock must pay the price that prevails at the close of trading on the day the stock is offered to the public.

c. In a "Dutch auction," investors who want to buy shares in an IPO submit bids indicating how many shares they want to buy and the price they are willing to pay. The company determines how many shares it wants to sell. The highest price that enables the company to sell the desired number of shares is the price that all buyers must pay.

d. It is possible that the price set in an IPO is so high that investors will refuse to buy the number of shares that the company wants to sell. In this situation, the IPO is said to be oversubscribed.

e. It is possible that the price set in an IPO is so low that investors will want to buy more shares than the company wants to sell. In that case, the company will have to issue more shares than it wants to sell.

19) The stock market is thought to be efficient because:

a. There are many brokers working the exchange floors

b. Computers can make very fast calculations these days

c. There are many stock analysts following the same stocks

d. Stocks are available and are very inexpensive

e. Speed trading is now an acceptable trading technique

20) If the stock is priced correctly but with better management the firm could be worth even more, then the firm would be:

a. A potential target for a stock investor

b. A potential target for a private equity firm

c. A potential target for a bond fund

d. A potential target for the SEC

e. A potential target for share repurchases

Amongst corporations, sole proprietorships and partnerships, approximately what percentage of revenues are generated by corporations?

50%

42%

33%

82%

Question 2

What should be the financial goal of any firm?

attracting and acquiring capital and investing it

maximization of the owners’ wealth

offering quality products at fair prices

quality customer service

Question 3
4 pts
Which of the following statement(s) is \ are true regarding the corporate management team?

In a corporation, ownership and direct control are typically separate.

Board of Directors is elected by shareholders and has ultimate decision-making authority

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – the Board typically delegates day-to-day decision making to the CEO.

All of the above



Question 4
4 pts
When calculating the present value of either a future single sum or a future annuity, it involves a process called discounting. The applicable interest rate to perform the discounting function is usually called the

yield to maturity

compound interest rate

discount rate

none of the above

Question 5
4 pts
_________________ are used to present additional information about items included in the financial statements and to present additional financial information.

stock certificates

Notes to financial statements

Preferred stocks

Convertible securities
Question 6
4 pts
What should be the financial goal of any firm?

maximization of the owners’ wealth

attracting and acquiring capital and investing it

offering quality products at fair prices

quality customer service

Question 7
4 pts
A competitive market is one in which a _____ numbers of producers compete with each other to satisfy the wants and needs of a _____ number of consumers.

Large, small

Small, small

Large, large

Small, large

Question 8
4 pts
The Valuation Principle is an analysis between the value of the ______ of a financial alternative and the value of its ______.

revenues, income

benefits, costs

expenses, costs

Question 9
4 pts
The Net Present Value rule implies that we should compare a project’s net present value (NPV) to___________. (zero \ future value \ the past).

Zero

Future Value

The Past

An Estimate

Question 10
4 pts
The internal rate of return (IRR) rule will _______ agree with the Net Present Value rule on a given investment project.

always

never

sometimes

none of the above

Question 11
5 pts
The law of one price exists due to arbitrage opportunities. If the price of a security, commodity or asset is different in two different markets, then an arbitrageur will ______ the asset in the more expensive market and ________ it where prices are lower.

sell, purchase

purchase, sell

purchase, purchase

sell, sell

Question 12
5 pts
Approaching every problem using a timeline is a(n) ________ idea because timelines identify events in a transaction or investment which might otherwise be easily overlooked.

good

bad

indifferent

unrealistic

Question 13
5 pts
The present value (PV) of a stream of cash flows is the _______ the present values of each individual cash flow

difference between

product of

sum of

same as

Question 14
5 pts
As the number of periods increases, present value (increases\decreases\stays the same).

increases

decreases

stays the same

is unrelated

Question 15
5 pts
When a constant cash flow will occur at regular intervals for a finite number of periods of time, it is called a(n) __________.

annuity

perpetuity

interest payment

principle payment

Question 16
5 pts
When a constant cash flow will occur at regular intervals forever, it is called a(n) ___________.

annuity

perpetuity

interest payment

principle payment

Question 17
5 pts
The NPV measures the ______ change in shareholder wealth that arises from undertaking a project.

consistent

dollar

annual

semi-annual

Question 18
5 pts
When calculating the present value of either a future single sum or a future annuity, the applicable interest rate is usually called the _______ rate

compounding

inverted

market

discount

Question 19
5 pts
To endow a perpetuity is the same as calculating the present value (PV) of a perpetuity. Say you want to endow an annual graduation party at your alma mater. You want the event to be a memorable one, so you budget $30,000 per year forever for the party. If the university earns 8% per year on its investments, and if the first party is in one year’s time, how much will you need to donate to endow the party?
The formula for PV of a perpetuity = C\r; = $30,000 \ 0.08; =

$3,750

$37,500

$375,000

$3,750,000

Question 20
5 pts
With an Ordinary Annuity, payments are required at the ________ of each period. An example of this is bonds which usually pay coupon payments at the end of every six months until the bond's maturity date.

beginning

middle

end

payments are not required

Question 21
5 pts
Sales of securities that the seller does not own is called a:

stop-loss order

short sale

limit order

maintenance margin

Question 22
5 pts
What is the name of the market where money market securities, bonds, and mortgages are originated and traded?

debt securities market

foreign exchange market

derivative securities market

equity securities market

Question 23
5 pts
If an investor feels the price of a stock will decline in the future, which trade should the investor undertake?

market order

buy on margin

limit order

short sale

Question 24
5 pts
For risk averse investors, how much return is expected for taking on more risk?

lower

equal

zero

higher

Question 25
5 pts
A ___________________ is a highly regulated document which details the issuers operations and finances and must be provided to each buyer of a newly issued security.

Prospectus

An underwriting agreement

A best efforts agreement

none of the above

Question 26
5 pts
Which of the following statements about liquidity ratios is true?

The lower the quick ratio relative to the current ratio, the safer a firm is in terms of liquidity.

The higher the current ratio, the more likely a firm is able to pay its short-term obligations.

The quick ratio is always between 0 and 1.

All the above statements are true.

Question 27
5 pts
The ability of a firm to meet its short-term debt obligations as they come due is indicated by which of the following ratios:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 28
5 pts
Which one of the following financial statements reports a firm’s assets and the claims on assets?

balance sheet

income statement

statement of changes in financial position

cash flow statement

Question 29
5 pts
The extent to which assets are used to support sales is indicated by which of the following ratios:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 30
5 pts
The extent to which assets are financed by borrowed funds and other liabilities is indicated by:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 31
5 pts
The basic price that equates the demand for and supply of loanable funds in the financial markets is the __________:

interest rate

yield curve

term structure

cash price

none of the above

Question 32
5 pts
Federal obligations usually issued for maturities of two to ten years are called:

Treasury bonds

Treasury notes

Treasury bills

Agency issues

Question 33
5 pts
An increase in the demand for loan-able funds, holding supply constant, will cause interest rates to:

increase

decrease

stay the same

none of the above

Question 34
5 pts
As interest rates rise, the prices of existing bonds will:

rise

stay the same

fall

either a or b

Question 35
5 pts
In an inflationary period, interest rates have a tendency to:

rise

fall

stay the same

act erratically

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