4
answers
0
watching
386
views
bronzeeel636Lv1
28 Nov 2020
Which of the following is correct?
a. The asset demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money declines as the interest rate declines.
b. The asset demand for money is downsloping because bond prices and interest rates are directly related.
c. The transaction demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money varies inversely with the interest rates.
d. The asset demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money increases as the interest rate rises.
Which of the following is correct?
a. The asset demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money declines as the interest rate declines.
b. The asset demand for money is downsloping because bond prices and interest rates are directly related.
c. The transaction demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money varies inversely with the interest rates.
d. The asset demand for money is downsloping because the opportunity cost of holding money increases as the interest rate rises.
larryrambo777Lv10
9 Mar 2023
Already have an account? Log in
Sonia DhawanLv10
15 Jan 2021
Already have an account? Log in