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Economies of scale may arise from all but one of the following, which one is it?

a) spreading the fixed-costs of administration over more customers holds average costs down.

b) doubling promotional expenses to expand sales more than proportionately.

c) government economic subsidies protect firms from competition to avoid losses.

d) having a larger retail space can expand sales more than proportionately.

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Sonal Bahl
Sonal BahlLv10
16 Dec 2020

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Related questions

1.

A consultant has advised Consolidated Fish, Inc., a perfectly competitive firm, that it should cut back its production in order to increase its profits. We can conclude from this that

CF's total costs must be greater than its total revenues.

CF's marginal cost must be greater than the price of its product.

CF's costs are increasing at a rate less than its revenues.

fixed costs are not being covered and CF should shut down.

2.

If marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue

the firm should hold output constant.

the firm should expand output.

there is no way to determine if the firm should expand output, contract output, or hold output constant.

the firm should contract output.

3.

Which statement is true?

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average variable cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average total cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the break-even point.

4.

As output expands beyond the break-even point, the vertical distance between the AVC and ATC will

remain constant.

get smaller.

get larger.

5.

Total revenue divided by output equals

average variable cost.

marginal cost.

price.

average total cost.

6.

A monopoly firm selling mustache wax to vain men in a small town is currently maximizing profits by charging a price of $5. It follows that the marginal cost of mustache wax

is equal to $5.

is greater than $5.

is less than $5.

None of these choices are true.

7.

A firm can sell 14 units at $18, but to sell 15 units, the firm must cut the price to $17. The marginal revenue derived from selling the 15th unit is

-$18

$3

$17

0

8.

If total revenue is increasing as output is rising, then

marginal revenue must be greater than zero.

marginal revenue must be less than zero.

marginal revenue must be equal to zero.

price must be increasing.

9.

Firms that had virtual monopolies, that is control over at least 80 percent of industry production, because of control over an essential resource include all of the following except

the DeBeers Diamond Company.

the Standard Oil Company.

the Ford Motor Company.

the International Nickel Company.

10.

Which statement is true?

None of these statements are true.

Most natural monopolies are government regulated or government owned.

All monopolies are bad.

All monopolies are good.

11.

Which is the most accurate statement?

There are virtually no oligopolies in the U.S.

The most important aspect of oligopoly is product differentiation.

There are a whole range of oligopolistic models, from a cartel to cutthroat competition.

An oligopolistic industry cannot have more than five firms

12.

Oligopolists have more control over prices than monopolistic competitors because

their prices are always set by the government.

since an oligopolist is the only competitor in the market, setting prices is no problem.

they can legally collude whereas monopolistic competitors may not.

with fewer competitors, they are able to monitor and determine their own prices much easier.

13.

The definition of monopolistic competition differs from that of perfect competition

in neither the number of firms nor the type of product.

in both the number of firms and the type of product.

with respect to the type of product.

with respect to the number of firms in the industry.

14.

The typical monopolistic competitor

may compete on the basis of physical differences, convenience, service, and ambience.

always competes on the basis of producing a product that is physically different from those of its competitors.

never uses price discrimination.

is a large firm.

15.

Which statement is true?

The monopolistic competitor may make a profit in the long run.

The monopolistic competitor has a perfectly elastic demand curve.

None of these statements are true.

The monopolistic competitor operates at the minimum point of her ATC curve.

16.

Which statement is true about the monopolistic competitor in the long run?

It will be breaking even.

It will be making a profit.

It may be making a profit or taking a loss.

It will be taking a loss.

17.

Which statement is true?

Most monopolistic competitors are large firms.

Monopolistic competitors produce goods or services for which there are no close substitutes.

None of these statements are true.

Monopolistic competitors usually operate at the minimum point of their average total cost curves.

18.

Which statement is false?

As the price of a good rises the consumer surplus decreases.

A person would maximize her total utility when she had no consumer surplus.

We will consume a service when its marginal utility is equal to its price.

A product's utility to a buyer is measured by how much the buyer is willing to pay for it.

Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

Question 11 One potential remedy to the tragedy of the commons is to: never allow a single individual to consume more than one percent of the common resource. criminalize the usage of common resources. allow individuals to use a common resource as long as they receive some benefit from doing so. place a common resource under private ownership. 4 points Question 12 As a result of a positional externality: contestants have a tendency to invest in a series of mutually offsetting investments in performance enhancement. there is generally an underinvestment in performance enhancement. the market price of performance enhancement materials is too high. the quality of performance in competitive situations is lower than the socially optimal level. 4 points Question 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding health insurance? Economics shows that all health related procedures should be free to individuals because the health of an individual is priceless. Total economic surplus would be larger if individuals faced an incentive to only use services when the benefit exceeds their costs. Health maintenance organizations provide an incentive for doctors to prescribe expensive nonessential services. First dollar insurance coverage has likely had very little to do with rising healthcare expenditures since World War II. 4 points Question 14 A strategy that yields a higher payoff no matter what the other players in the game choose is known as a: prisoner's strategy. dominated strategy. dominant strategy. Nash strategy. 4 points Question 15 Based on the diagram below, if the costs of hospital care are constant at $200 per day, and the individual does not incur any cost for each day for hospital care, then: the individual will stay 7 days and there will be no loss in economic surplus. the individual will stay 3 days and there will be no loss in economic surplus. the individual will stay 7 days and there will be lost economic surplus. the individual will stay 3 days and there will be lost economic surplus. 4 points Question 16 Economic research by Manning and colleagues suggests that people with deductible health insurance policies: spend substantially less on health care and have substantially worse health outcomes compared to people with first-dollar insurance coverage. spend substantially more on health care and have substantially better health outcomes compared to people with first-dollar insurance coverage. spend basically the same amount on health care and have substantially worse health outcomes compared to people with first-dollar insurance coverage. spend substantially less on health care and have no measurable difference in health outcomes compared to people with first-dollar insurance coverage. 4 points Question 17 An efficient program for reducing pollution is one for which: all polluters incur the same total costs of abatement. all polluters pay the same amount in taxes to the government. all polluters have the same marginal costs of abatement. all polluters reduce their emissions by the same amount. 4 points Question 18 Given the information on pollution abatement costs of the two firms shown below, which of the following is an efficient combination of pollution reduction? Quantity of pollution abatement Firm A's MC of abatement Firm B's MC of abatement 1 $30 $25 2 $35 $30 3 $40 $35 4 $45 $40 Firm A reduces by 1 ton and Firm B reduces by 1 ton. Firm A reduces by 2 tons and Firm B reduces by 3 tons. Firm A reduces by 4 tons and Firm B reduces by 1 ton. Firm A reduces by 3 tons and Firm B reduces by 2 tons. 4 points Question 19 All of the following are characteristics of perfectly competitive markets except: there are a large number of firms. productive resources are mobile. all firms produce a differentiated product. buyers and sellers are well informed. 4 points Question 20 An advantage of the auction method to pollution abatement is that: it is very expensive to firms. regulators can achieve a desired abatement target without having detailed knowledge of the abatement technologies available to polluters. it requires all firms to reduce by exactly the same amount. it assures that eventually society will reach a level of zero pollution emissions. 4 points Question 21 There are 2 firms each emitting 200 tons of a pollutant. Firm A's abatement costs are constant at $20/ton, and Firm B's abatement costs are constant at $40/ton. The government's goal is to reduce pollution by half. If the government auctions 200 one ton permits to the highest bidder: Firm A will purchase all 200 permits. Firm B will purchase all 200 permits. each firm will buy 100 tons. there is no way to know who the highest bidder for any permit would equal. 4 points Question 22 As a result of economies of scale, as output expands: fixed costs are decreasing. average total costs are decreasing. marginal costs are increasing. total costs are decreasing. 4 points Question 23 Generally, when countries open their borders to free trade: both domestic producers and consumers of imported goods gain. both domestic producers and consumers of exported goods gain. domestic producers of imported goods and domestic consumers of exported goods gain. domestic producers of exported goods and domestic consumers of imported goods gain. 4 points Question 24 Which of the following is the best example of a tariff? South Korea bans imports of U.S. beef because of safety concerns. The U.S. requires toys imported from China to undergo testing for lead content. The U.S. imposes a tax on sugar imported from Brazil. The U.S. restricts the quantity of cars imported from Japan. 4 points Question 25 A means-tested program is a benefit program: in which benefits decline as a recipient's earned income increases. in which all individuals must undergo health screening to be eligible for benefits. in which all recipients exclusively receive benefits through in-kind transfers. that only affects the average income of a specific segment of the population. 4 points Save and Submit Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

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