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Joseph refers to the change of GNP to GDP in his discussion in the video of "Problems with GDP as an Economic Behavior". He mentions that he would expect someone to write an article questioning if there is a political context to the switch of GNP to GDP. GDP is the measure of output within the country versus GNP measuring the income of people within the country. He is saying that the money "made within the country" is going to places outside of the country. This is a big topic these days with the approaching election. With regards to economic behavior, do you think it is plausible to say that yes there is a political context to the switch of terms?

here is the link to the video :

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QUaJMNtW6GA

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Chika Ilonah
Chika IlonahLv10
28 Sep 2019

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