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The first column shows the number of donuts consumed, while the second and third columns (respectively) show Shane's and Miriam's marginal personal use values. Assume that Shane's initial endowment is three donuts, while Miriam's initial endowment is 13 donuts. Suppose that Miriam is allowed to set the price at which Shane can purchase additional donuts (beyond his initial endowment of three donuts). What price would Miriam set if her objective were:

To maximize her Total Revenues (that is, the number of donuts Shane purchases multiplied by the price set by Miriam);

To maximize Miriam's Producer Surplus (that is, Total Revenues minus Miriam's Total Costs, defined as her cumulative opportunity cost of selling donuts to Shane rather than consuming them herself);

To maximize Shane's and Miriam's Total Surplus (that is, Consumer Surplus plus Producer Surplus)

For each case, provide both your answers and a brief explanation of how you derived it

  Number of Donuts Shane's Marginal Personal Use Value Miriam's Marginal Personal Use Value
  0 $0.00 $0.00
  1 $2.00 $1.50
  2 $1.90 $1.45
  3 $1.80 $1.40
  4 $1.70 $1.35
  5 $1.60 $1.30
  6 $1.50 $1.25
  7 $1.40 $1.20
  8 $1.30 $1.15
  9 $1.20 $1.10
  10 $1.10 $1.05
  11 $1.00 $1.00
  12 $0.90 $0.95
  13 $0.80 $0.90
  14 $0.70 $0.85
  15 $0.60 $0.80
  16 $0.50 $0.75
  17 $0.40 $0.70
  18 $0.30 $0.65
  19 $0.20 $0.60
  20 $0.10 $0.55
       
    Initial allocations  

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Related questions

Michael spends all of his income on coffee and donuts. A coffee costs $2.50 and a donut costs $2.00. At his current consumption level, the marginal utility for coffee is 30 utils, and the marginal utility for a donut is 60 utils. Which statement best describes what Michael needs to do to maximize his utility?

Question 1 options:

1)

buy less of both coffee and donuts.

2)

buy less coffee and more donuts.

3)

buy more coffee and less donuts.

4)

spend the same amount on coffee as he does on donuts.

Question 2

What is it called when the marginal utility derived from the last dollar spent on each good is the same across all goods and the last dollar spent uses all of the available budget for the purchase of those goods?

Question 2 options:

1)

the optimal consumption bundle.

2)

the optimal production bundle.

3)

diminishing marginal utility.

4)

optimal point.

Question 3 (1 point)

What does the economic theory of marginal utility infer?

Question 3 options:

1)

consumers naturally know which consumption choices will maximize their utility.

2)

consumers who watch market trends are better at maximizing their utility than are those who do not watch those trends.

3)

one cannot maximize utility without taking an economics class that explains utility theory.

4)

one cannot maximize utility without doing the math of calculating the ratios of marginal utility divided by price.

Question 4

Kate is addicted to chocolate and does not care how much it costs. In fact, she spends more than $20 a week on chocolate. What can be concluded about elasticity in her buying decisions?

Question 4 options:

1)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

2)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

3)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

4)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

Save

Question 5 (1 point)

Why does the demand for a good become relatively more elastic?

Question 5 options:

1)

substitutes for the good become more available.

2)

substitutes for the good become less available.

3)

the good becomes more of a necessity.

4)

the time allowed for adjustment is shortened.

Save

Question 6 (1 point)

Assume the price of chicken per pound is $3.49 and that Americans purchase 10 million pounds per chicken every month. If the price of chicken increases to $5.49 per pound, identify what will occur to consumer surplus?

Question 6 options:

1)

consumer surplus increases.

2)

consumer surplus decreases.

3)

consumer surplus creates incentive to save.

4)

consumer surplus creates incentive to spend.

Question 7 (1 point)

What is another name for the difference between the price that consumers are willing to pay for a good and a lower price that they may actually have to pay?

Question 7 options:

1)

profit.

2)

revenue.

3)

consumer utility.

4)

consumer surplus.

Question 8

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam all want to attend a football game. The admission price is $48. Adam is willing to pay $59 for the ticket. Brian is willing to pay $39. Robert is willing to pay $45, and Sam is willing to pay $55. Based on this information, who will go to the game?

Question 8 options:

1)

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam.

2)

Brian and Robert.

3)

Adam and Sam.

4)

Brian, Robert, and Sam.

Save

Question 9 (1 point)

Lily is willing to pay $10 for one bracelet and $5 for a second. Patty is willing to pay $12 for one bracelet and $2 for a second. If the price is currently $8 per bracelet, identify what is the total consumer surplus after Lily and Patty make their purchases?

Question 9 options:

1)

$8

2)

$6

3)

$7

4)

$5

Question 10 (1 point)

Manfred is willing to shovel one driveway for $25, a second for $30, and a third for $35. Assume that the market rate for shoveling driveways is $32. How many driveways will Manfred shovel, what will be his total revenue, and what will be his producer surplus?

Question 10 options:

1)

Manfred will shovel two driveways for a total revenue of $64 and his producer surplus will be $9.

2)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $75 and his producer surplus will be $12.

3)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $96 and his producer surplus will be $5.

4)

Manfred will shovel four driveways for a total revenue of $125 and his producer surplus will be $18.

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Question 11 (1 point)

What would the difference between the price that producers receive and the lower price at which they are willing to sell the good be called?

Question 11 options:

1)

producer shortage.

2)

producer surplus.

3)

consumer shortage.

4)

consumer surplus.

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Question 12 (1 point)

What will happen when there is an increase in the price of eBook downloads?

Question 12 options:

1)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each dollar spent on eBooks.

2)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each hardcopy book purchased.

3)

There will not be a substitution effect.

4)

There will not be a change in the number of eBooks in the set of consumption possibilities.

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Question 13 (1 point)

When is price elasticity of demand utilized to measure how an individual changes the quantity they demand?

Question 13 options:

1)

when supply changes.

2)

when product quality changes.

3)

when marketing changes.

4)

when price changes.

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Question 14 (1 point)

Assume Mary consumes only tea and pastries. A cup of tea costs 5 euros and a pastry costs 8 euros. Her weekly income is 450 euros. Mary always drinks 2 cups of tea for every pastry she consumes. What is Mary’s optimal weekly consumption bundle?

Question 14 options:

1)

25 cups of tea and 50 pastries.

2)

50 cups of tea and 25 pastries.

3)

58 cups of tea and 20 pastries.

4)

60 cups of tea and 30 pastries.

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Question 15 (1 point)

When is producer surplus a positive value?

Question 15 options:

1)

the price the producer is willing to charge equals the market price.

2)

there is no tax applied to the good.

3)

the price the producer is willing to charge is less than the market price.

4)

the price the producer is willing to charge is greater than the market price.

1. In a market economy, the high salaries of some star baseball players such as Adrian Gonzalez, are determined by

   

Team owners, based on the total number of star athletes they plan to hire.
  B

advertising companies, based on what they are willing to pay to advertise their products at baseball games.
  C

the interaction of the demand for star athletes and the supply of star athletes.
  D

consumers, based on their willingness to watch baseball games.

2. Demand in factor markets differs from demand in product markets in that

  A

the demand for a factor of production is difficult to determine.

B

  

the demand for a factor of production is influenced by workers' productivity and by the producers' expected sales revenues, not by tastes and preferences of consumers.

C

  

demand for a factor of production is based on the tastes and preferences of firms.

D

  

demand for a factor of production is based on the tastes and preferences of resource owners.
     

3. The demand for labor is described as a derived demand because

A

  

it is derived by workers seeking to earn income to fund the consumption of goods and services.

B

  

it is derived by producers seeking to make profits by starting new businesses.

C

  

it is derived from the demand for products that use labor in the production process.

D

  

it is derived from government institutions that rely on labor markets for the purpose of raising tax revenue.

4. Which of the following is not an example of a derived demand?

A

  

Several of the animated films released between 1999 and 2001 failed to earn a profit, which caused some companies to stop making these films, thereby decreasing the demand for animators.

B

  

Seth Bullock, a personal injury attorney, complains that he is earning far less now than a few years ago largely because personal injury cases have been undercut by state laws limiting class-action suits and payouts on damages.

C

  

Millicent Manning, the owner of a furniture store, is concerned that her sales have fallen for the past six months. She attributes this to the downturn in the real estate market.

D

  

As advancements in medical technology increase the safety and success of laser eye surgery, the demand for opticians has decreased.

5. Marginal revenue product for a perfectly competitive seller is equal to

A

  

the output price multiplied by the total product of labor.

B

  

the output price multiplied by the number of workers hired.

C

  

the change in total revenue that results from hiring another worker.

D

  

the marginal cost of production.

6. What is the difference between labor's marginal product and marginal revenue product?

A

  

The marginal product of labor is the increase in output as a result of hiring an additional worker while the marginal revenue product of labor is the increase in profit as a result of hiring an additional worker.

B

  

The marginal revenue product of labor is the dollar value of hiring an additional worker while the marginal product of labor is the increase in the firm's physical output as a result of hiring an additional worker.

C

  

The marginal product of labor is the additional labor's contribution to the firm's total output while the marginal revenue product is the additional labor's contribution to the firm's total sales revenue.

D

  

Labor's marginal product is a measure of labor's productivity while labor's marginal revenue product is a measure of labor's ability to sell the firm's products.

7. What is the difference between a firm's marginal revenue and its marginal revenue product?

A

  

Marginal revenue is the change in sales revenue from selling one more unit of output while marginal revenue product is the profit earned from hiring one more worker.

B

  

Marginal revenue is the change in sales revenue from selling one more unit of output while marginal revenue product is the change in total revenue from hiring one more worker.

C

  

Marginal revenue is the increase in revenue when a firm raises its output price while marginal revenue product is the increase in the marginal product when a firm hires an additional worker.

D

  

There is no difference between the two terms.

1.

A consultant has advised Consolidated Fish, Inc., a perfectly competitive firm, that it should cut back its production in order to increase its profits. We can conclude from this that

CF's total costs must be greater than its total revenues.

CF's marginal cost must be greater than the price of its product.

CF's costs are increasing at a rate less than its revenues.

fixed costs are not being covered and CF should shut down.

2.

If marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue

the firm should hold output constant.

the firm should expand output.

there is no way to determine if the firm should expand output, contract output, or hold output constant.

the firm should contract output.

3.

Which statement is true?

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average variable cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average total cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the break-even point.

4.

As output expands beyond the break-even point, the vertical distance between the AVC and ATC will

remain constant.

get smaller.

get larger.

5.

Total revenue divided by output equals

average variable cost.

marginal cost.

price.

average total cost.

6.

A monopoly firm selling mustache wax to vain men in a small town is currently maximizing profits by charging a price of $5. It follows that the marginal cost of mustache wax

is equal to $5.

is greater than $5.

is less than $5.

None of these choices are true.

7.

A firm can sell 14 units at $18, but to sell 15 units, the firm must cut the price to $17. The marginal revenue derived from selling the 15th unit is

-$18

$3

$17

0

8.

If total revenue is increasing as output is rising, then

marginal revenue must be greater than zero.

marginal revenue must be less than zero.

marginal revenue must be equal to zero.

price must be increasing.

9.

Firms that had virtual monopolies, that is control over at least 80 percent of industry production, because of control over an essential resource include all of the following except

the DeBeers Diamond Company.

the Standard Oil Company.

the Ford Motor Company.

the International Nickel Company.

10.

Which statement is true?

None of these statements are true.

Most natural monopolies are government regulated or government owned.

All monopolies are bad.

All monopolies are good.

11.

Which is the most accurate statement?

There are virtually no oligopolies in the U.S.

The most important aspect of oligopoly is product differentiation.

There are a whole range of oligopolistic models, from a cartel to cutthroat competition.

An oligopolistic industry cannot have more than five firms

12.

Oligopolists have more control over prices than monopolistic competitors because

their prices are always set by the government.

since an oligopolist is the only competitor in the market, setting prices is no problem.

they can legally collude whereas monopolistic competitors may not.

with fewer competitors, they are able to monitor and determine their own prices much easier.

13.

The definition of monopolistic competition differs from that of perfect competition

in neither the number of firms nor the type of product.

in both the number of firms and the type of product.

with respect to the type of product.

with respect to the number of firms in the industry.

14.

The typical monopolistic competitor

may compete on the basis of physical differences, convenience, service, and ambience.

always competes on the basis of producing a product that is physically different from those of its competitors.

never uses price discrimination.

is a large firm.

15.

Which statement is true?

The monopolistic competitor may make a profit in the long run.

The monopolistic competitor has a perfectly elastic demand curve.

None of these statements are true.

The monopolistic competitor operates at the minimum point of her ATC curve.

16.

Which statement is true about the monopolistic competitor in the long run?

It will be breaking even.

It will be making a profit.

It may be making a profit or taking a loss.

It will be taking a loss.

17.

Which statement is true?

Most monopolistic competitors are large firms.

Monopolistic competitors produce goods or services for which there are no close substitutes.

None of these statements are true.

Monopolistic competitors usually operate at the minimum point of their average total cost curves.

18.

Which statement is false?

As the price of a good rises the consumer surplus decreases.

A person would maximize her total utility when she had no consumer surplus.

We will consume a service when its marginal utility is equal to its price.

A product's utility to a buyer is measured by how much the buyer is willing to pay for it.

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