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20 May 2021
Let f: R → R be a function such that for any a ∈ R, the sequence (f(a/n)) converges to 0. Does f have a limit at zero?
Let f: R → R be a function such that for any a ∈ R, the sequence (f(a/n)) converges to 0. Does f have a limit at zero?
Liked by cecilia
20 May 2021
