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12 Aug 2018

The text is talking about the valuation of lower of cost ormarket (net realizable value).

It provides an example of "Intel chips" in being devalued in thefollowing way:

Intel Chips - [Qty] 1,000 [Cost per Item] $250 [Market Per Item]$200 [Lower of Cost or Market per item] $200 Total Lower of Cost orMarket 1,000 x $200 = $200,000


This part makes sense. The text then indicates that the followingeffects of the lower of cost or market write-down (of the $50,000dollars) are as follows:

Effects of LCM Write Down Current Period Next Period (if sold)
Costs of Goods Sold Increase $50,000 Decrease $50,000
Pretax Income Decrease $50,000 Increase $50,000
Ending Inventory on balance sheet Decrease $50,000 Unaffected

Question: I am seeking an explanation as to why does the COGSand Pre-tax income change in opposition in the next period from thecurrent period.

Please help with an explanation so that I may understand.

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Patrina Schowalter
Patrina SchowalterLv2
12 Aug 2018

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