Biology And Biomedical Sciences BIOL 2960 Lecture 21: Sp18 L21-23 Guide

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ivorykoala623

14 Aug 2018

School

WUSTL

Department

Biology And Biomedical Sciences

Course

Biology And Biomedical Sciences BIOL 2960

Professor

Bednarski, Smith, Kundel, Gole, Kunkel, Majors, Hafer

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Document Summary

Study guide 9: pcr, dna sequencing, and dna repair. Ionizing radiation (radon, x-rays): causes single and double strand dna breaks: uv radiation: causes pyrimidine dimers (causes c"s to turn into u"s, chemicals: causes damaged bases and cross-links. Muth to bring the unmethylated gatc close to the mismatch: muth nicks the unmethylated dna strand (single stranded cleavage), and an exonuclease removes a section of the. Initiated by an enzyme that recognizes a damaged base and removes it: ex: modified base is a deaminated c which is a. U: nucleotide excision repair (fixes bulky damage), removes oligonucleotide harboring the damage, uvra complex recognizes damage (distortion) and recruits. 2",3"- dideoxyribonucleotide or ddntps with attached fluorescent dye: no 2" -oh on sugar (as expected for dna, no 3" -oh on sugar (unexpected, cannot form phosphodiester bonds because no 3" -oh substrate for dna polymerase to bind onto.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1

A mutation caused by exposure to gamma rays is called a spontaneous mutation

	a.	True
	b.	False
	c.	Sometimes, depending on the type of base change
	d.	Gamma rays do not cause mutations

QUESTION 2

A recessive mutation affecting an essential biochemical pathway can be detected________

	a.	when the organism is heterozygous for that mutation.
	b.	when the organism is homozygous for that mutation.
	c.	in either homozygous or heterozygous conditions.
	d.	only by sequencing (recessive mutations never show a phenotype).

QUESTION 3

During DNA replication, the newly synthesized chain grows by adding

	a.	nitrogenous bases
	b.	the sugar-phosphate backbone
	c.	nucleosides
	d.	dNTPs

QUESTION 4

During replication, the DNA strand 5â- AAGTCTAGCCTAG -3â will serve as a template for the polymerization of:

	a.	5â- CTAGGCTAGACTT -3â
	b.	5â - TTCAGATCGGATC -3â
	c.	5â - GATCCGATCTGAA -3â
	d.	3â - AAGTCTAGCCTAG -5â

QUESTIOn 5

Given the following DNA sequences, select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

Sequence 1:

5â-TGGACGCTAA-3â

3â-ACCTGCGATT-5â

Sequence 2:

5â-AATCGCAGGT-3â

3â-TTAGCGTCCA-5â

Sequence 3:

5â-ACCTGCGATT-3â

3â-TGGACGCTAA-5â

	a.	Sequences 1 and 2 are the same
	b.	Sequences 1 and 3 are the same
	c.	Sequences 2 and 3 are the same
	d.	Sequences 1, 2 and 3 are all different

QUESTION 6

Repetitive sequences in the genome are hotspots for:

	a.	Deamination
	b.	Depurination
	c.	Thymine dimer formation
	d.	Replication errors

QUESTION 7

Select which statement(s) about the Ames test is(are) correct

	a.	it has been designed to understand mutation repair systems in Salmonella typhimurium
	b.	it uses mammalian liver extract
	c.	it allows to study whether chemical compounds or their enzymatic breakdown products are mutagenic
	d.	it is based on whether a chemical compound causes reversion mutations from his+ to his-
	e.	two of the above are correct
	f.	three of the above are correct

QUESTION 8

Select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

	a.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by the carbons in the sugar backbone.
	b.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.
	c.	In order to form proper base pairs in a double stranded DNA molecule, the two strands must run in opposite directions.
	d.	A and C are correct.
	e.	B and C are correct.

QUESTION 9

Studies of gene mutation frequencies have shown that:

	a.	mutations are rare, and genomes are generally stable.
	b.	mutation frequencies differ among organisms and also between genes, suggesting certain genes are more susceptible to mutation.
	c.	mutation frequencies are consistent between organisms, and each region of DNA is equally susceptible to random mutations.
	d.	Both A and B are correct.
	e.	Both A and C are correct.

QUESTION 10

The compound 5-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) is a derivative of uracil, and if BrdU becomes incorporated during DNA replication, it pairs with adenine. This compound is best classified as which type of mutagen?

	a.	base analog
	b.	base inducer
	c.	intercalating agent
	d.	oxidative agent
	e.	alkylating agent

QUESTION 11

The rate of mutation of the fruit fly is higher than the rate of mutation of Algae

True

False

QUESTION 12

Thymine dimers are most commonly caused by which of the following?

	a.	X-rays
	b.	Alkylating agents
	c.	U.V. irradiation
	d.	DNA intercalating agents

QUESTION 13

What chemical group is found in the 3â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 14

What chemical group is found in the 5â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 15

Which is the correct order of molecules binding to DNA during DNA replication?

	a.	Helicase, SSB, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase
	b.	SSB, DNA pol I, ligase, helicase, DNA pol I, primase
	c.	primase, helicase, DNA pol III, ligase, DNA pol I, SSB
	d.	SSB, helicase, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase

QUESTION 16

Which statement(s) is(are) correct about strand slippage?

	a.	It can cause disorders such as Huntingon disease.
	b.	It is a process that causes mutations altering the number of DNA repeats.
	c.	It is a process that incorporates nucleotide base analogs and trinucleotide repeats.
	d.	a and b are correct.
	e.	b and c are correct.
	f.	a, b and c are correct.

help needed asap.

chocolatesea-lion434

1. In Humans, many types of cancers have been linked to?

A. Duplications
B. Inversions
C. translocations
D. deletions
E all of these

2. 5- bromoouracil is mutagenic because it is a(n)

a. base-modifying agent
b. base analog
c. intercalating agent
d. alkylating agent.

3.Ultraviolet radiation creates __________ in DNA

A. 5-methyl cytosine residues
B. breakages
C point mutations
D. mutational hot spots
E thymine dimers

4. The telomeres of chromosomes is composed of

A. heterochromatin
b. nucleosome
c. histone
d. achromatic

5. In eukaryotes, a replicon is

a. the distance between the origin of replication and thetermination of replication
b. a single chromosome
c. the entire genome
d. one DNA strand of a single chromosome

6. In a nonreciprocal interchomosomal translocation, a segment of achromosome is

a. exchanged with an identical segment on a differentchromosome
b. exchanged with an identical segment on a sister chromatid
c. transferred to a different chromosome without a reciprocalexchange of genetic material
d. transferred to a new location on the same chromosome without areciprocal exchange of genetic material

7. Somatic mutations are always.

a. spontaneous
b. carcinogenic
c. heritable
d. lethal
e. none of these

8. A woman with an XO genotype is

a. aneuploid
b. euploid
c. diploid
d. poluploid

9. Spontaneous mutations may occur as a result of

a. all of these
b. errors in DNA replication
c. transposition
d. none of these
e. normal cell biochemistry

10. In the semi conservative model of DNA replication, progenydouble helices consist of

a. one parental DNA strand and one new strand
b. one parental DNA strand and one new RNA strand
c. two new RNA strands
d. two parental DNA strands
e. two new DNA strands

11. A mutation in a gene may alter a cellâs

a. phenotype
b. genotype and phenotype
c. genotype

12. During replication, the direction of synthesis of new DNA fromthe leading strand is

a. both 5â to 3â and 3â to 5â
b. none of these
c. 3â to 5â
d. from left to right only
e. 5â to 3â only

13. A mutation that results in a switch from a purine-pyramidingbase pair to a pyramiding-purine base pair is a _________mutation.

a. neutral
b. transition
c. missense
d. transversion
e. nonsense

14. A trisomic human cell would contain how many chromosomes?

a. 45
b. 46,
c. 47.
d. 48

15. In a strand of DNA, a _____________ bond connects the phosphategroup of one nucleotide to the sugar of the adjacentnucleotide

a. hydrogen
b. ester
c. phosphodiester
d. phosphate
e. disulfide

16. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by which type of chromosomalmutation?

a. deletion
b. duplication
c. translocation
d. transversion
e. inversion

17. During replication, the role of DNA primase is to

a. add nucleotide to the growing DNA chain
b. synthesize a short chain for RNA
c. untwist the double helix at the origin of replication
d. relax the super coiling of the double helix
e. synthesize the primo some

18. A(n) ____________ inversion involves the Centro mere

a. chromocentric
b. paracentric
c. epicentric
d. percentric
e. concentric

19. Which of the following substances mutates DNA by intercalatingbetween adjacent base pairs?

a. methyl methane sulfonate
b. all of these
c. nitrous acid
d. 2-amino urine
e. acridine orange

20. A molecule of RNA is always

a. double stranded
b. helical
c. nonparallel
d. all of these
e. none of these

21. Mutagenesis of cells using radiation or a chemicalintercalating agent could be used to create __________ mutations ina region of DNA.

a. random
b. both random and site-specific
c. site-specific

22. In Griffithsâs tranformation experiments, the mice died whenthey were injected with

a. living, no virulent bacteria
b. living, virulent bacteria
c. heat-killed, no virulent bacteria
d. living, nonvirulent bacteria
e. both B and D

23. A monoploid human cells

a. shows only the excessive phenotype of all these genes
b. would be functionally impaired
c. is normal
d. would not survive

24. Gametes containing an abnormal number of chromosomes may occuras a result of

a. paracentric inversion
b. reciprocal translocation
c. disjunction of chromosomes
d. unequal crossing over

25. DNA may be altered as a result of _____________ events thatoccur normally in cells

a. depurination
b. deamination
c. depyrimidation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

26. Which enzyme prevents DNA from tangling up as the replicationfork migrates during replication?

a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA helicase
c. topoisonmerase
d. DNA polymerase III
e. DNA gyrase

27. Which of the following enzymes play an important role in DNAreplication?

a. DNA helicase
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA primase
d. all of them
e. DNA polymerase III

28. A mutation gene sustains a mutation that restores the originalphenotype, This is a

a. frame shift mutation
b. transversion
c. reversion
d. transition
e. forward mutation

29. A dicentric chromosome has two

a. telomeres
b. mutations
c. arms
d. centromeres

30. Which type of chromosomal mutation cannot revert to thewild-type state

a. duplication
b. deletion
c. translocation
d. both A and C
e. all of them

31. Translation of histone mRNAs occurs during which phase of theeukaryotic cell cycle?

a. M
b. G1
c. G2
d. S
e. all of these

32. After removal of the RNA primers, Okazaki fragments are joinedthrough a reaction that involves which enzyme?

a. RNA polymerase
b. DNA helicase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA primase
e. DNA ligase

33. Which of the following is required for the synthesis of DNAduring replication?

a. DNA polymerase
b. magnesium ions
c. all of them
d. template DNA
e. dNTPs

34. Most of the genome of an active cell consists of

a. heterochromatin
b. histochromatin
c. poluchromatin
d. euchromatin

35. In eukaryotes, DNA replication begins,

a. a single origin of replication on each chromosome
b. a single origin of replication on each chromosome
c. multiple origins of replication on each chromosome
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

36. A human cell contains 2 sets of 24 chromosomes is

a. euploid
b. haploid
c. polyploid
d. aneuploid

37. Pseudodominance occurs as a result of which type ofmutation?

a. translocation
b. duppolication
c. all of these
d. point mutation
e. deletion

38. The enzymatic activity of a telomerase is best described asa

a. none of these
b. polymerase
c. ligase
d. reverse transcriptase
e. topoisomerase

39. A Barr body is an example of

a. constitutive heterochromatin
b. facultative heterochromatin
c. facultative euchromatin
d. constitutive euchromatin

40. An addition or deletion of one or two base pairs in a genecauses a ____________ mutation

a. Transition
b. frameshift
c. nonsense
d. transversion
e. neutral

41. A heterozygous chromosomal inversion can be detected

a. by cytogenetic observation of loops in chromosomes
b. through genetic studies indicating a decrease in the frequencyof recombination between genes
c. by observing a decrease in the number of viable progenyfollowing genetic crosses
d. all of the above

42. The mutagen 5-bromouracil is an analog of which base?

a. adenine
b. threonine
c. thymine
d. cystosine
e. uracil

43. A mutation that changes a codon from one that represents anamino acid to one that signals a chain termination is a______________ mutation.

a. neutral
b. missense
c. frame shift
d. nonsense

44. A chromosomal mutation that results in an increase in theamount of DNA is a(n)

a. duplication
b. inversion
c. deletion
d. both A and C
e. all of the above

45. Prior to replication, the DNA double helix must be untwisted bywhich type of enzyme?

a. topoisomerase
b. ligase
c. polymerase
d. helicase
e. primase

46. In his transformation experiments, Griffiths used cultures ofwhich bacterium?

a. Sacchromyces cerevisiae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
d. Bacillus cereus
e. Eneterococcus faecalis

47. A mutation changes a codon from a UCG to a UAG. This is a____________ mutation?

a. point
b. nonsense
c. silent
d. both A and B
e. all of the above

48. In eukaryotes, DNA replication

a. is initiated at several sites on chromosomes
b. occurs bidirectional
c. is semidiscontinuous
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

49. Which of the following bacteria are used in the Amestest?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Escherichia coli
c. Vibrio cholera
d. Salmonella typhimurium
e. Rickettsia rickettsii

50. Which of the following changes represents a missensemutation?

a. UGA (stop) to UAG (stop)
b. AAA (lysine) to AGA (arginine)
c. UUU (phenylalanine) to UAA (stop)
d. AUG (methionine) to UGA (stop)
e. AAA (lysine) to AAG (lysine)

13. The arms of a human and the wing of a bat are _________________ structures, composed of the same bones that have been modified for different functions.

analogous

vestigial

c.	homologous

d.	convergent

14. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. People who are homozygous for the disease-causing allele have skin that is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet radiation; this can lead to skin cancer at an early age. The mutation that causes this disorder is in a gene that functions:

a.	to repair DNA by excising (removing) nucleotides damaged by UV light.

b.	in lysosomes, to break down lipids that otherwise accumulate in the nervous system.

c.	to produce the UV blocking pigment melanin in the skin cells

d.	in red blood cells to carry oxygen to the skin.

15. The Amish are a religious sect descended from a small group of colonists who came to the United States over 200 years ago. Their religious beliefs have kept them isolated from society. The Amish have a much higher than average incidence of both polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) and dwarfism in their communities. This is most likely explained by:

a.	inheritance of acquired characters.

b.	the founder effect.

c.	disruptive selection.

d.	natural selection.

16. In the structure of DNA that Watson and Crick proposed, the sides of the "ladder" of the DNA molecule are always the same distance apart, making the molecule a constant width. This occurs because when the bases hydrogen bond to form the rungs of the "ladder", a:

a.	purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.

b.	purine always pairs with a purine.

c.	pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrmidine.

d.	The structure of the double helix is not determined by how the bases pair.

17. The RNA transcript of DNA that travels to the cytoplasm, carrying the instructions to make a protein, is called:

rRNA.

tRNA.

mRNA.

d.	RNA polymerase.

18. When DNA is replicated, the error rate is approximately one error for every 10,000 nucleotides copied. However, that error rate is reduced to only 1 error for every 1 billion nucleotides. The DNA sequence is "corrected" by:

a.	repeating S phase to see if the error rate is lower the second time around.

b.	enzymes that proofread the DNA and repair errors.

c.	messenger RNA during the process of transcription.

d.	Any errors made during DNA replication cannot be corrected. If errors are detected after S phase, the cell is destroyed.

19. Mendel's principle of segregation says that:

a.	when gametes are formed, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular gene.

b.	some genes are dominant to others.

c.	a testcross must be used to determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.

d.	all of the above

20. Tay-Sachs disease is lethal before reproductive age, but the allele persists in Louisiana French Canadians because:

a.	it is a dominant allele.

b.	new mutations causing this disease are common in that population.

c.	it is not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.

d.	the disease is contagious and can be transmitted by nonheritable means.

21. Physical features that are similar in organisms which are not closely related to each other are most likely a result of ____________. A good example of this is the similarities seen between some marsupial and placental mammals.

a.	natural selection.

b.	adaptation to similar environments

c.	convergent evolution

d.	All of the above phrases can be used to correctly fill this blank.

22. In humans, which of the following sex chromosome compliments could be found in males?

23. The proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes:

a.	help to package the DNA within the nucleus.

b.	are involved in gene expression, through binding with the DNA.

c.	may be replicating or transcribing the DNA.

d.	All of these are true of proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes.

24. A sequence of DNA nucleotides that contains the information to produce a single protein is a(n):

codon.

gene.

c.	polypeptide.

d.	anticodon.

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Biology And Biomedical Sciences BIOL 2960 Lecture 21: Sp18 L21-23 Guide

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