01:377:310 Lecture 18: Chapter 18

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peachbeetle258

11 Jan 2018

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Concept: base decisions about practicing skills as wholes or in parts on the complexity and organization characteristics of the skills. A practice strategy that involves practicing a skill in its entirety. A practice strategy that involves practicing parts of a skill before practicing the whole skill. The decision to practice a skill as a whole or in parts can be based on the complexity and organization characteristics of the skill. Complexity: number of parts or components in a skill and the attention demands on the task. Note: complexity is distinct from difficulty - as demonstrated in fitts". Organization: spatial and temporal relationships among the parts of the skill. High level of organization: parts are spatially and temporally interdependent. Low level of organization: parts are relatively independent. Analyze the skill to determine which part of each continuum for complexity and organization best represents the skill.

Related Questions

22jul15

Q1. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q2. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q3. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q4. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q5. What is the most useful role for the external leader of a self-managed group?
a. select new members of the group when they are needed
b. mediate internal conflicts and encourage cooperation
c. monitor the group to ensure it does not become a social club
d. serve as a coach, facilitator, and advocate for the group

Q6. Which is not characteristic of Bradford's group-centered leadership?
a. the leader should emphasize group maintenance behavior as much as task oriented behavior
b. the leader should encourage members to share the responsibility for performing leadership functions
c. the leader should strive to maintain a rational discussion without emotional outbursts or expression of feelings
d. the leader should allow the group to make the final choice

Q7. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q8. Which leadership function is especially important when a cross-functional team is initially formed to carry out a project?
a. planning and scheduling team activities to meet project deadlines
b. influencing outsiders to provide adequate resources, approvals, and assistance
c. articulating a vision or objective that inspires commitment by team members
d. mediating conflicts among members and helping them find integrative solutions

Q9. Which of the following is least likely to be a reason for an organization's failure to adapt to a changing environment?
a. leaders with a long-term perspective
b. highly specialized subunits
c. declining financial performance
d. institutionalization of power

Q10. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q11. What pattern of behavior is most likely for a CEO who has been in office for 3-4 years?
a. after the CEO consolidates power, he or she becomes more willing to experiment with innovative strategies
b. as the CEO gains confidence with a strategy that is working, he or she becomes more excited about gathering information to improve it
c. after the CEO selects a strategy and implements it, he or she becomes complacent and inflexible about changing it
d. after the CEO institutionalizes power, he or she becomes more willing to allow others to participate in making major decisions

Q12. Which condition does not limit a chief executive's discretion to make major changes in the strategy of an organization?
a. the organization has a few major clients who account for most sales
b. the organization has ample financial reserves
c. the culture of the organization is strong
d. the organization has a strong board of directors

Q13. When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to:
a. maintain a high level of external monitoring
b. have detailed plans and operating procedures
c. increase the power of the chief executive
d. strengthen the organization culture

Q14. When an organization has declining performance, a CEO who has been in office for several years is least likely to:
a. look for ways to improve implementation of the existing strategy
b. make small, incremental changes in the strategy
c. give a pep talk and urge people to redouble their effort
d. make major changes in the organization's strategy

Q15. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q16. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q17. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q18. What training method is most useful for improving interpersonal skills?
a. computer simulations
b. behavior role modeling
c. large scale simulations
d. analysis of short cases

Q19. Which of the following was not recommended for effective training?
a. use concrete examples, diagrams, and mnemonics in explanations
b. relate training objectives to the person's interests and career ambitions
c. integrate complex material into longer learning modules
d. allow ample opportunity for practice with feedback

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

tealbadger30

QUESTION 26

Age 65 has come to be considered the onset of old age in the U.S. because:

	a.	This is when most older adults find their abilities diminishing
	b.	At age 65, physical appearance makes it evident that a person is old
	c.	This is the age identified in Social Security and Medicare at the time these were enacted
	d.	This is the age at which life expectancy diminishes most rapidly

1 points

QUESTION 27

The concept of "dependency ratios" has been criticized because:

		Individual differences in needs as well as differences in aging and activity choices make it difficult to ascertain which generation depends on which other generations.
		Very few older adults ever rely on younger individuals for support and assistance
		The most dependent generation may well be young adults
		It is common knowledge that older adults are dependent on younger individuals

1 points

QUESTION 28

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the purpose of theory in understanding aging?

	a.	Theories attempt to explai what we observe in empirical research or practice
	b.	A goal is to consolidate practice around a simple set of principles
	c.	Theories resolve disputes about the nature of reality and definitions of aging
	d.	The most important purpose is to reduce apparently complex phenomena to a few basic factors

1 points

QUESTION 29

Explanations that focus on the situations and problems that accumulate during the life span and cannot be understood separate from developmental experiences are considered to reflect:

	a.	The aged
	b.	Aging
	c.	Age
	d.	The meaning of life

1 points

QUESTION 30

Early theories of aging, described later life as a:

	a.	Problem
	b.	normal, welcomed stage of life
	c.	rare and unique process
	d.	Too idiosyncratic for generalized description

1 points

QUESTION 31

Theories that explain aging as resulting from the accumulation of "insults" from the environment, which eventually reach a level incompatible with life are labeled:

	a.	Sociocultural theories
	b.	Selective optimization with compensation
	c.	Model of Human Occupation
	d.	Stochastic theories

1 points

QUESTION 32

Psychological theories of aging seek to explain

	a.	Reasons for the emergence of mental disorders in late life
	b.	Why older individuals are likely to be pessimistic
	c.	Relationships among older and younger individuals
	d.	The multiple changes in individual behavior in late life

1 points

QUESTION 33

It is now believed that neurological theories of aging that focus on decline in neurological functioning may be:

	a.	Too optimistic
	b.	Lacking in clarity
	c.	Too pessimistic
	d.	Too limited

1 points

QUESTION 34

In the theory of Selective Optimization with Compensation, "optimization" refers to the idea that:

	a.	People engage in behaviors that augment or enrich their general reserves and maximize their chosen life courses
	b.	People make efforts in middle age to accumulate needed resources to ensure successful aging
	c.	Changing biological and psychological factors that enhance the abilities of older adults in memory and problem solving
	d.	Political initiatives that reduce stigma associated with later life

1 points

QUESTION 35

Mrs. Adams, an 87 year-old widow, has begun to distance herself from some of her extended family members. At the same time, she spends increasing time with her adult children, grandchildren, and some of her close neighbors. This would be an example of:

	a.	The Model of Human Occupation
	b.	Evolutionary Theory
	c.	Cognition and Aging theories
	d.	Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

1 points

QUESTION 36

A theory of particular relevance to occupational and physical therapy is:

	a.	Theory of Free Radicals
	b.	Systems theory of motor control
	c.	Stochastic theories
	d.

1 points

QUESTION 37

Theory is important to therapeutic decisions as a way to:

	a.	Reduce the therapist's need to address individual differences
	b.	Guide decisions about evaluation and intervention
	c.	Minimize the idea of complexity in understanding older adults
	d.	Clearly identify the specific evaluation instruments to be used

Match the definitions or complete the statements in the first part of the quiz with the appropriate terms found in the second part.

Definitions/Statements

1. _____ refers to marketersâ focus on a product rather than on the needs of the market.

2. _____ companies do not try to persuade consumers to buy what the firm has already produced, but rather to produce only products that they know they can sell, thereby satisfying consumersâ needs and turning them into loyal customers.

3. The impact of technology on buyer behavior relates to factors such as ____; the use of technology to engage customers and build relationships; customization of products and promotional messages; and better prices and distribution.

4. In the case of situational influences, this relates to the situation in which or the occasion on which the product will be used, e.g., special occasion or everyday use.

5. In the case of situational influences, this relates to the fact if we are in a store, point-of-purchase displays could influence us to buy something. We could also make unplanned purchases because we remembered something from seeing the brand while we are in the store.

6. This discipline on which consumer researchers draw focuses on society and large groups in society such as family and social class.

7. This discipline on which consumer researchers draw focuses on cultures and differences among cultures.

8. These are temporary circumstances that affect consumer purchase decisions.

9. In the case of situational influences, this refers to the fact that the person and the occasion for which we are buying something influence our purchase decisions.

10. According to the simple model of consumer decision making, reference groups, family, social class, culture, and subculture are among the _____ on buyer behavior.

11. According to the simple model of consumer decision making, motivation, personality trait, perception, and attitudes are among the _____ on buyer behavior.

12. According to the simple model of consumer decision making, advertising, buzz agents, customized messages, social media, and word-of-mouth are examples of ____.

13. This discipline on which consumer researchers draw focuses on behavior in small groups and helps consumer researchers to understand issues such as opinion leadership, diffusion of innovations, and communication.

14. In the case of situational influences, ______ are consumer mood states or physiological state (for example, hunger, thirst) that influence consumer decision-making.

15. The selection of one or more segments by a marketer to serve.

16. Developing a distinct image for a brand in the mind of consumers.

17. This is an effort by a marketer to change the existing perception that consumers have of a brand.

19. ___ segmentation involves segmenting based on variables such as urban, rural, suburb, state, cities, counties, and regions.

20. ____ segmentation is based on variables such as consumersâ lifestyles as indicated by their activities, interests, and opinions.

21. This criterion for effective targeting says that marketers should have some way of deciding which consumers fall into which segments.

22. This criterion for effective targeting says that marketers should be able to reach segments with appropriate media and distribution channels.

23. This is the most popular segmentation system combining lifestyles and values of consumers.

24. This household segmentation model is based on a combination of geographic and demographic information and the principle that âBirds of a feather flock together.â

25. ______ is defined as âsending consumers personalized and prompt offers and promotional messages designed to reach the right consumers and deliver to them highly relevant messages at the right time and more accurately than when using conventional segmentation techniques.â

Terms

A. Positioning

B. Accessibility

C. Anthropology

D. Situational influences

E. Consumption situation

F. Task definition

G. Identification

H. Marketing-oriented

I. Targeting

J. Psychographic

K. Marketing myopia

L. PRIZM

M. Interactive and novel communication channels

N. Sociology

O. Demographic

P. Purchase situation

Q. Behavioral targeting

R. Antecedent states

S. Communication sources

T. Geographic

U. Sociocultural influences

V. VALS

W. Psychological influences

X. Social psychology

Y. Repositioning

01:377:310 Lecture 18: Chapter 18

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