EC120 Lecture Notes - Lecture 11: Economic Surplus, Deadweight Loss, Ion

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30 Nov 2015

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Ec120 lecture #11: application: the costs of taxation. When a tax is levied on buyers demand curve shifts to the left by the size of the tax. Government revenue from levying a tax on a good totaltax revenue= the tax(t ) quantity of the good sold (q) Calculating changes in welfare: using graphs consumer surplus= 75. = tax revenue= 75=$ 7500 total surplus= deadweight loss= (100 75) Calculating changes in welfare: using equations calculate the new equilibrium price and quantity when a tax is placed on buyers, given qs= 120+3 p and qd=400 2p. Qd=400 2 (p+15 )=370 2 p , qs= 120+3 p (unchanged) 370 2 p= 120+3 p 490=5 p p=98 o o. Qd=370 2 (98)=174 o: therefore, p=98 , p+t =113 , and q=174 note: p is the price received by sellers and p+t is the price paid by buyers.

Related Questions

1) Which of the following explains the distribution of income?

Select one:

a. a positive externality

b. The person on which the final burden of a tax falls

c. An unintended result of taxation

d. The way that income is allocated to individuals, families, and other groups

2)Why can suppliers of goods can more easily shift the incidence of a tax to the consumer if the demand of the good is inelastic?

Select one:

a. Because markets that sell inelastic goods have so much competition, that a tax increase would not be noticed.

b. Because the tax would make marginal utility equal marginal benefit.

c. When taxes are levied, companies legally have to increase their prices.

d. Because the consumer needs the good regardless of the new price.

3)Where is the power to issue taxes granted to the federal government?

Select one:

a. The sixteenth amendment to the constitution

b. The bill or rights

c. The 20th amendment to the constitution

d. The declaration of independence

What are intergovernmental revenues generally used to do?

Select one:

a. Sanitation workersâ benefits

b. To create national parks

c. Educate and provide public welfare

d. Provide public transportation for all state employees

One of the noted advantages of a flat tax is

Select one:

a. all members of congress generally agree with issuing a flat tax

b. The flat tax offers a relatively simple tax process

c. There is a defined and agreed upon tax rate already in place.

d. The flat tax removes behavior incentives that are built into the tax code

6) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the âincidence of a taxâ.

Select one:

a. This is a tax paid by all people to establish social security payments

b. This refers to the individual(s) who take the final burden of the tax

c. This is a loophole designed to help the rich

d. This is a tax on individuals who run oligopolies

Person âAâ earns $10,000 a year and pays 10% of his income in taxes. Person âBâ earns $60,000 a year and pays 20% in taxes. Which kind of tax is being represented?

Select one:

a. A regressive tax

b. A progressive tax

c. A loophole tax

d. A flat tax

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

graychimpanzee865

1. Other things remaining the same, a left shift in the supply curve will lead to:

A. a decrease in the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity.

B. an increase in the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity.

C. an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity.

D. a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium quantity.

2. Two goods are said to be complements when a fall in the price of one good:

A. leads to a fall in the price of the other good.

B. leads to a left shift in the demand for the other good.

C. leads to a right shift in the demand for the other good.

D. doesn't affect the demand for the other good.

3. In a competitive free market:

A. all exchanges take place involuntarily.

B. there is no provision for the protection of property rights.

C. there is only one seller and many buyers.

D. the government does not impose price controls.

4. Which of the following correctly explains the role of economic agents in a free market?

A. Economic agents allocate goods to those buyers who value the goods the most.

B. Economic agents allocate goods to those buyers who need the goods the most.

C. Economic agents set production quotas for sellers in the market.

D. Economic agents set prices according to the production cost of each good.

5. Which of the following was an effect of the price ceiling placed on gasoline in the U.S. in the 1970s?

A. Gas stations ran out of gas as the quantity of gas demanded exceeded the quantity supplied.

B. Car owners started buying luxury cars that were less fuel-efficient as the price of gas was very low.

C. Those who valued gas the most were able to buy gas under the price ceiling.

D. The inventory of unsold gas increased and gas stations incurred losses.

6. Willingness to accept is:

A. the highest price that a producer is willing to receive to sell an extra unit of a good.

B. always higher than the marginal cost of production.

C. always lower than the marginal cost of production.

D. the lowest price that a producer is willing to receive to sell an extra unit of a good.

7. Assume that the economy is in a recession and consumers are expecting a fall in their income levels. This will cause a(n):

A. right shift in the market demand for all goods.

B. left shift in the market demand for all goods.

C. increase in the total quantity demanded of all goods.

D. decrease in the total quantity demanded of all goods.

8. Which of the following factors is expected to cause the demand curve for coffee to shift to the right?

A. A higher personal tax on the income of all consumers

B. An increase in the supply of coffee due to better weather

C. A higher tax on the sale of tea, a substitute for coffee

D. A fall in the manufacturing cost of coffee

9. If the demand and supply curves for a commodity shift to the right and the shift in demand is greater than the shift in supply, then in comparison to the initial equilibrium, the new equilibrium will be characterized by:

A. the same price and quantity.

B. a lower price and quantity.

C. a higher price and a lower quantity.

D. a higher price and quantity.

10. Which of the following statements correctly describes a perfectly competitive market?

A. Haggling and bargaining are commonly observed in a perfectly competitive market.

B. Buyers in a perfectly competitive market pay different prices according to their individual demand.

C. In a perfectly competitive market, individual sellers and buyers can influence the market price.

D.All participants in a perfectly competitive market are price-takers.

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EC120 Lecture Notes - Lecture 11: Economic Surplus, Deadweight Loss, Ion

EC120 Full Course Notes

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