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Biology 3475A/B Lecture : Ch 5 Part 2.docx

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ochrewombat575
26 Apr 2012
School
Western University
Department
Biology
Course
Biology 3475A/B
Professor
Jeremy Mc Neil

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Document Summary

11/5/2010 10:37:00 am aposematic colouration wasps will sting you in response to a threat (it is expensive to sting) if you get squashed and producing compounds. Wasp stinger like a hypodermic needle, can sting repetitively even when dead honeybee: stinger remains in skin they will die after stinging you both release an alarm pheromone to recruit more generally organized in their defense. Alarm pheromone to recruit others bc they live in groups! Bioassay system for alarm pheromones in wasps. Swinging some things see when they were agitated what they would attack. Diff types of extracts used as well blood made no response but if you use venom sac, 66 indiv responded, 64 responded attacked the moving dark and none the pale (don"t wear dark colours) they attack. Japanese hornet can actually cause serious problems when you get stung. Attack honeybees when they presence of the wasp, bees circularize around, and flap wings until the predator passes out.

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Related Questions

1. Diseases are those abnormal conditionsin which the bodys defensive cells fail to make the self versus thenonself distinction correctly, and attack the body's owntissues.
A. Cancerous
B. Septic
C. Autoimmune
D. Nondiscrete

2. Which of the following determinesgenetic sex (male or female) in mammals?
A. the acrosome of the sperm
B. the temperature of the developing fetus
C. the SRY gene on the Y chromosome
D. the genetic makeup of the parents
E. the Y chromosome contained in the egg

3. Which of the following regardingantigens is true?
A. Antigens can only be recognized by their specificity.
B. An antigen is a molecule which promotes a general immuneresponse.
C. A large antigen is likely to have many different epitopes, eachof which can stimulate a distinct immune response.
D. The most effective antigen are small simple amino acidcomplexes.
E. Bacteria do not contain antigens.

4. All of the following are defensemechanism employed by vertebrates except

A. negative test, as in, not findingself-markers.

B. change in chromosomal composition

C. positive test to recognize presence ofnonself-markers

D. specific antibodies.

E. skin and mucous membranes asbarriers.

5. The immune system depends on thefunction of ______, which include several types of phagocytic cellsand two kinds of lymphocytes.

A. platelets

B. leukocytes

C. target cells

D. erythrocytes

6. In comparing the kidneys of marine andfreshwater fish, which of the following is not true?

A. Freshwater fish fluids have a greaterosmotic concentration.

B. Marine fish excrete many of the divalentcations through the anus.

C. The flow of the filtrate is faster inmarine fish.

D. The urine is less concentrated infreshwater fish.

E. Marine fish drink greater quantities ofwater.

7. The kidneys of which one of thefollowing are so highly efficient that it never has to drink waterand can obtain all of its water from its food?

A. desert lizard

B. camel

C. pocket moue Perognathus

D. kangaroo rat

E. gerbil

8. Select the incorrect statement regardingthe temperature of the immune system.

A. Interleukin-1 is a pyrogen, which cancause the neurons in the hypothalamus to raise the body'stemperature, producing a fever.

B. Fevers cause the liver and spleen tostore sodium and potassium which bacteria need for their growth andmetabolism.

C. Fevers above 105 ° F can be fatal.

D. Fever contributes to the body's defensesby stimulating phagocytosis.

E. When macrophages encounter invadingcells, they release interleukin-1, which is carried to the brain bythe circulatory system.

9. Which of the following is not amechanism to prevent polyspermy?

A. change in membrane otential of egg

B. vitelline envelopes lift off surface ofegg

C. sperm nuclei degraded inside eggallowing one to fuse

D. cortical granule enzymes remove spermreceptors from egg

E. altering composition of exterior eggcoat

10. Which of the following cells have anincorrect function?

A. neutrophil---important antigenpresenting cell

B. eosinophil---important to theelimination of parasites

C. mast cell---releases histamine

D. macrophage---phagocytic cell

E. monocyte---precursor of macrophage

11. Which part of the antibody moleculedetermines its role in the immune response?

A. disulfide chains

B. the entire molecule

C. the stem of the Y

D. the heavy chains

E. two arms of the Y

12. Select the incorrectly matchedimmunoglobin (Ig)subclass and a fact about it.

A. IgG---found in the plasma and secretedin secondary response

B. IgM---first secreted during primaryresponse

C. IgE----promotes the release ofhistamine

D. IgA----found in saliva and mother’smilk

E. IgD----serve as receptors on thesurfaces of T cells

13. _______ are the source ofantibody-producing cells.

A. B cells

B. Plasma cells

C. Monocytes

D. Macrophages

E. T cells

14. Select the incorrect statementregarding the inflammatory response.

A. The alarm signals can be histamines orprostaglandins.

B. The inflammation response is a localizedspecific response to infection or injury.

C. Neutrophils spill chemical in the areaof injury or infection that kills bacteria, tissues, andthemselves.

D. Tissue can exhibit edema from thedilation of the blood vessels in the area of injury orinfection.

E. If a cell is injured or infected, itreleases chemical alarm signals that promote dilation of bloodvessels at the injury site.

15. Reproduction in reptiles compares toreproduction in birds in that

A. both newly hatched birds and reptilesrequire parental care.

B. the eggs of both birds and reptiles haveprotective shells.

C. birds are oviparous, reptiles areovoviviparous.

D. both exhibit external fertilization.

E. male or female reptiles reproduceasexually; birds do not.

16. ______diseases are those abnormalconditions in which the body’s defensive cells fail to make theself versus the nonself distinction correctly, and attack thebody’s own tissues.

A. Cancerous

B. Septic

C. Autoimmune

D. Nondiscrete

17. Most marine invertebrates areosmoconformers. This means that

A. the osmolality of their body fluids isequal to that of the osmoregulators who inhabit the sameenvironments.

B. the osmolality of their body fluidsfluctuates between being hypertonic to hyportonic depending on theseason and the tides.

C. the osmolality of their body fluids isnot the same as their seawater environment

D. the osmolality of their body fluids isthe same as their seawater environment and that their bodiescontain the same solutes as their surroundings

E. the osmolality of their body fluids isthe same as their seawater environment

18. Which of the following determinesgenetic (male or female) in mammals?

A. the acrosome of the sperm

B. the temperature of the developingfetus

C. the SRY gene on the Y chromosome

D. the genetic makeup of the parents

E. the Y chromosome contained in theegg





If you can please explain why and how yougot the answer. 5 star rating for correct answers only, I have theanswer sheet, and just want to double check.

Which best describes the term "immunological disorder"?
a. An exaggerated or inadequate immune response.
b. A disorder that destroys the immune system.
c. Any genetic disease.
d. A complete lack of immune function.
e. Immune problems that cause disease but cannot be detected.

2. How would an immune deficient person react to the introduction of an antigen to their bodies, assuming the cause of the deficiency was genetic?
a. Inadequate immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.
b. Inadequate immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.
c. Excessive immune response due to primary immunodeficiency.
d. Excessive immune response due to secondary immunodeficiency.

3. An ordinarily innocuous substance that can trigger a harmful immunological response in a sensitized person.
a. Autoimmune substance
b. Antibody
c. Allergen
d. Transfusion
e. Wheal

4. Which is the best example of an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity?
a. Clumping of red blood cells
b. Generalized inflammation
c. DiGeorge Syndrome
d. Airway restriction
e. Arthus reaction

5. Which of these is the first action that takes place during an Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Production of plasma cells
b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils
c. Activation of B cells
d. Production of IgE antibodies
e. Degranulation

6. A patient has signs of allergy following a blood transfusion. Which of these hypersensitivities is being displayed?
a. Immediate (Type I)
b. Cytotoxic (Type II)
c. Immune complex (Type III)
d. Cell-mediated (Type IV)
e. Localized

7. Which of these mechanisms is NOT involved in the mechanism of Type II hypersensitivities?
a. Opsonization of cellular antigens
b. Mediation by IgG and IgM
c. Destruction of invading cells
d. Complement
e. Prostaglandin and histamine release

8. How is hemolytic disease of the unborn prevented?
a. Treatment of the infant with steroids.
b. Antihistamine administration to both mother and infant.
c. Administration of serum tests to the infant and careful monitoring.
d. Injection of the mother with anti-Rh IgG antibodies.
e. All of these choices.

9. Immune complex (Type III) hypersensitivity results from the formation of:
a. soluble/particulate antigen-complement complexes.
b. cellular antigen-antigen complexes.
c. soluble/particulate antibody-antibody complexes.
d. cellular antibody-antibody complexes.
e. soluble/particulate antigen-antibody complexes.

10. A local immune response to an antigenic substance (usually injected) that causes edema and hemorrhage is known as _____.
a. serum sickness
b. Arthus reaction
c. hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. hemolytic uremic syndrome
e. generalized anaphylaxis

11. One form of Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity that involves phagocytes capturing but failing to kill pathogens, so a mass of cells forms around the pathogens, is:
a. Atopy
b. Tuberculin hypersensitivity
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
d. Granulomatous hypersensitivity
e. Serum sickness

12. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity is often referred to as a "delayed" hypersensitivity because reactions may take _____ to develop.
a. less than one hour
b. 1-2 hours
c. at least 12 hours
d. 1-2 weeks
e. a month or more

13. Which of these takes place during a Cell-Mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Release of cytokines.
b. IgE attachment to mast cells and basophils.
c. Release of histamine and heparin.
d. Activation of complement.
e. Activation of B cells.

14. This type of disorder arises from a hypersensitivity to self antigenson cells and in tissues.
a. Immunodeficiency
b. Autoimmune
c. Anaphylactic
d. Granulomatous
e. Desensitization

15. This occurs when the immune system responds to a body component as if it were foreign.
a. Immunodeficiency
b. Transplantation
c. Antigenic mimicry
d. Autoimmunization
e. Allergic reaction

16. Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disorder?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. Rheumatic fever
e. DiGeorge Syndrome

17. Under which circumstances is an organ transplant most likely to succeed?
a. If recipient T cells become sensitized to the graft.
b. If patient complement binds to graft cells.
c. If immunosupression therapy is avoided.
d. If the graft has the same histocompatibility antigens as the recipient.
e. If plasma cells proliferate in response to the graft.?

18. Which of the following would be typical of a Type IV sensitivity to a drug?
a. A nurse develops contact dermatitis from frequent contact with Betadine.
b. A patient has a generalized anaphylaxis to intravenous Rocephin.
c. IgG and IgM are produced in a patient due to administration of sulfonamides.
d. Serum sickness develops after a patient has multiple exposures to penicillin.

19. A 40 year old patient examined in an emergency department presents with fatigue, wasting, and diarrhea. Tests show a very low helper T cell level, and an endoscopy shows loss of Peyer’s patches in the colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Chronic Epstein-Barre infection
b. DiGeorge Syndrome
c. Agammaglobinemia
d. HIV/AIDS
e. Guillian-Barre Syndrome

20. This test, often coupled with a Western blot, utilizes enzymes that produce a colored compound if the antigen or antibody of interest is present.
a. Complement fixation test
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. Precipitin test
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
e. Immunofluorescence

(Finance Healthcare) Keep your response or summary to one page. How Much does the U.S. Spend on Healthcare?​ Articule analisys is How much does the U.S. spend to treat different diseases? Information below!

1. Circulatory and ill-defined conditions, such as check-ups, are the largest categories of health spending.Circulatory conditions had been the largest contributor to health spending, for at least a decade, until 2012 when they were surpassed in total spending by ill-defined conditions (a category including check-ups, follow-up appointments, preventive care, and treatment of minor conditions such as colds, flus, and allergies). In 2012, about $250 billion was spent on ill-defined conditions, and $243 billion went toward the treatment of circulatory conditions.

2. The top 5 disease categories account for roughly half of spending. The top five disease-based spending categories (ill-defined conditions, circulatory, musculoskeletal, respiratory, endocrine, and nervous system conditions) account for roughly half (51%) of all medical services spending by disease category. Circulatory and ill-defined conditions each represent about 13% of overall health spending by disease and musculoskeletal, respiratory, and endocrine conditions represent 10%, 8%, and 7% respectively.

3. Spending grew fastest for ill-defined conditions and slowest for circulatory conditions from 2000 - 2012. From 2000 – 2012, among the major disease categories in the chart above, the fastest spending growth was on ill-defined conditions and endocrine disorders.

4. About a third of medical services cost growth was from ill-defined, musculoskeletal, and circulatory conditions. Ill-defined conditions accounted for 16.6% of medical services spending growth. Treatments for musculoskeletal disorders (which include back problems and arthritis) and circulatory diseases were the second and third largest contributors to overall health services spending growth over the 2000 – 2012 period. Together, these three disease areas account for 36% of health services spending growth by disease. While spending on the category of circulatory diseases grew slowest of all disease categories, it still accounts for a substantial portion of overall growth because it is such a large area of spending.

4. Among major disease categories, the cost per case grew fastest for infectious diseases.

The cost of treating infectious diseases has grown faster than any category (the price index for this category grew at an average annual growth rate of 6.1% from 2000 to 2012).

Price indexes in the Health Care Satellite Account differ from official price indexes in that they are not only influenced by the price of a given treatment, but also by greater treatment intensity per visit, shifts from lower-cost to higher-cost treatments, and movement into less restrictive insurance plans.

5.The number of treated cases grew fastest for endocrine disorders and ill-defined conditions​. The number of treated cases grew fastest for ill-defined conditions and endocrine disorders, each at an average annual growth rate of 4.3% from 2000-2012. (Because the spending changes above adjust for treatment cost, they primarily represent changes in the number of cases over the time period.)

6. The cost per case has grown faster than the number of treated cases in most years since 2001. Over the 2000 – 2012 period, the cost per case generally grew faster than the number of treated cases. 2012 was the first time in recent years that the number of treated cases grew faster than the cost per case​.

7.Increases in prices and service intensity have driven most of spending growth.

Over the 2000 – 2012 period, about 65% of per capita spending growth can be attributed to growth in the cost per case, with the remaining 35% due to non-price factors. (This estimate differs from that previously released by the BEA because the number of treated cases started to drive growth relatively more in the most recent years.)

8. Major disease categories have mostly seen better outcomes along with higher spending. Assessing the value of health care spending is challenging for a number of reasons (including limited availability of outcomes data, differences in categorization between data sources, and inability to control for socioeconomic and other external factors that influence health). Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) are one way to measure health outcomes that account for both premature death and years lived with disability. In the 2005 – 2010 period, the increase in per capita spending generally corresponded with an improvement in DALYs. A study done by researchers at the BEA comparing spending and outcomes across 30 chronic conditions from 1987 - 2010 found that “overall gains in health outcomes for the population more than offset the increase in the average cost of treatment, suggesting a positive net value for medical spending.”