ECO380H1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Price Discrimination, Marginal Revenue, Economic Equilibrium

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5 Aug 2018

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R r t r t s pa = 200 5qa r t t s pb = 100 2qb . St s sts r sts m c(q) = 5. Rt r s t tr 20 rs r t t s t r r r . St r s r s p = 130 3q st s t t st t . Pa = 60 3qa s pb = 56 5qb t t s r st t t st t c(q) = 6q . R t r s t r t r s p = 200 q r s t . Q t t r t t t r s sts c(q1) = 5q2. P = 300 3q r s sts c(qa) = 100 + 30qa r s sts c(qb) = 60qb r . S pa = 100 2qa 4qb r s pb = 80 qb 2qa r . S sts c(qa) = 12qa r s sts c(qb) = 2q2.

Related Questions

Question 1 (1 point) Question 1 Unsaved In a competitive market the equilibrium price is determined: Question 1 options: at the intersection of the firmâs demand and the market supply curves. at the intersection of the market demand and supply curves. at the intersection of the firmâs demand and marginal cost curves. so as to cover the costs of the potential firms. so as to cover the costs of the firms currently in the industry. Save Question 2 (1 point) Question 2 Unsaved If the perfectly competitive market demand for gym shoes is given by QD = 100 â P and the market supply is given by QS = 10 + 2P, then the equilibrium price and quantity will be: Question 2 options: P = 50 and Q = 50. P = 40 and Q = 90. P = 40 and Q = 60. P = 30 and Q = 70. P = 25 and Q = 75. Save Question 3 (1 point) Question 3 Unsaved A constant-cost industry is one in which: Question 3 options: input prices do not change over time. technology does not change over time. input prices and technology do not change as firms enter or exit the industry. input prices and technology do not change over time. firms have reached the maturity phase of the industryâs life cycle. Save Question 4 (1 point) Question 4 Unsaved At the profit-maximizing level of output for the monopolist: Question 4 options: total revenue is equal to total cost. total costs are minimized. total revenue is maximized. marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. average revenue is equal to average cost. Save Question 5 (1 point) Question 5 Unsaved Craigâs Red Sea Restaurant is the only restaurant in Columbia, South Carolina, that sells Ethiopian food. The demand for Ethiopian food is given by Q = 25 â P. Craigâs costs are given by TC = 25 + Q + 5Q2. Its maximum monopoly profit is: Question 5 options: â$1. $21. $22. $24. $26. Save Question 6 (1 point) Question 6 Unsaved So long as price exceeds average variable cost, in the model of monopolistic competition, a firm maximizes profits by producing where: Question 6 options: the difference between marginal revenue and marginal cost is maximized. marginal cost equals marginal revenue. marginal revenue equals price. the difference between price and marginal cost is maximized. price equals marginal cost. Save Question 7 (1 point) Question 7 Unsaved If a firm in a monopolistically competitive industry is profit maximizing, it should choose its level of advertising such that the marginal revenue of an additional dollar of advertising: Question 7 options: is equal to the elasticity of its demand curve minus 1. is exactly $1. increases revenues by $1. is equal to 1 plus the elasticity of its demand curve. is equal to the elasticity of its demand curve. Save Question 8 (1 point) Question 8 Unsaved Firms advertise in order to: Question 8 options: build brand loyalty. appeal to the price-sensitive consumers. increase the demand elasticities of their loyal customers. shift the market supply curve to the left. shift the market demand curve to the left. Save Question 9 (1 point) Question 9 Unsaved Firms offer promotions in order to: Question 9 options: build brand loyalty. appeal to the price-sensitive consumers. increase the demand elasticities of their loyal customers. shift the market supply curve to the left. shift the market demand curve to the left. Save Question 10 (1 point) Question 10 Unsaved If the demand increases for the product of a decreasing-cost industry: Question 10 options: short-run price goes up, but long-run price falls. long-run output goes up, but long-run price may go up or down. short-run output goes up, but long-run output may go up or down. long-run output goes up, but short-run price remains constant. long-run price goes up, but short-run price may go up or down. Save Question 11 (1 point) Question 11 Unsaved If the demand increases for the product of an increasing-cost industry: Question 11 options: short-run price goes up, but long-run price falls. long-run output goes up, but long-run price may go up or down. short-run output goes up, but long-run output may go up or down. long-run output goes up, but short-run price remains constant. short-run price goes up, and long-run price goes up. Save Question 12 (1 point) Question 12 Unsaved When Pan United Airlines gives a $400 fare discount to persons with student IDs, they are practicing: Question 12 options: first-degree price discrimination. second-degree price discrimination. third-degree price discrimination. markup pricing. tying. Save Question 13 (1 point) Question 13 Unsaved When a utility charges homeowners less than big industrial users, it is practicing: Question 13 options: first-degree price discrimination. fourth-degree price discrimination. third-degree price discrimination. markup pricing. tying. Save Question 14 (1 point) Question 14 Unsaved Cereal manufacturersâ use of coupons can be partially explained by: Question 14 options: first-degree price discrimination. second-degree price discrimination. third-degree price discrimination. markup pricing. tying. Save Question 15 (1 point) Question 15 Unsaved If a firm supplies separable markets with price elasticities h1 and h2, it should set prices P1 and P2 so that: Question 15 options: P1h1 = P2h2. P1 /h1 = P2 /h2. P1(1 + 1/h1) = P2 (1 + 1/h2). P1/(1 â 1 /h1) = P2 / (1 â 1/h2). P1 = 1 â 1/h1 and P2 = 1 â 1/h2. Save Question 16 (1 point) Question 16 Unsaved If a firm supplies separable markets with price elasticities h1 = â3 and h2 = â2, it should set prices P1 and P2 so that: Question 16 options: P1 = P2. 3P1 = 2P2. 2P1 = 3P2. 2/3P1 = 1/2P2. 2P1 = 2/3P2. Save Question 17 (1 point) Question 17 Unsaved Women are often charged more than men for haircuts performed by the same haircutter. This is not considered price discrimination because: Question 17 options: women receive more consumer surplus from haircuts than men receive. haircutters claim to spend more time on womenâs hair, raising the cost of the haircut to the firm. firms make up the extra cost to consumers by giving women free samples of products. men receive more consumer surplus from haircuts than women receive. women have a lower price elasticity of demand for haircuts. Save Question 18 (1 point) Question 18 Unsaved If price is above the average variable cost but below the average total cost of a representative firm in a competitive industry: Question 18 options: there will be entry to the industry over time. there will be exit from the industry over time. the firms in the industry are just earning a normal rate of return. the firms in the industry are earning a supranormal rate of return. the industry is in long-run equilibrium. Save Question 19 (1 point) Question 19 Unsaved Joeâs T-shirts has costs given by TC = $100 + 3Q, where Q is the number of shirts. If Joe charges $5 each, the percentage markup for 100 shirts is: Question 19 options: 20%. 25%. 33%. 50%. 67%. Save Question 20 (1 point) Question 20 Unsaved In the model of monopolistic competition, there can be short-run: Question 20 options: losses or profits, but there must be profits in long-run equilibrium. profits, but there must be losses in long-run equilibrium. losses or profits, but there must be losses in long-run equilibrium. losses or profits, but there must be neither profits nor losses in long-run equilibrium. losses, but there must be profits in long-run equilibrium.

PLEASE ANSWER EACH QUESTION WITH A, B, C, and D. NOT ANSWERING ALL QUESTIONS OR INCORRECT ANSWERS WILL RESULT IN A THUMBS DOWN.

Question 1: Which of the following is not needed for price discrimination to be possible?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale and arbitrage.
		C. The firm must eventually learn about its customers' demands.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 2: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, first-degree price discrimination results in:

	A.	higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	B.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	C.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and lower total surplus.
	D.	lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 3: Relative to perfect competition, first-degree price discrimination results in:

		A. higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
		B. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		C. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		D. lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 4: If market demand is P = 100 - Q and the firm has a constant marginal cost of 20, then with first-degree price discrimination, the firm's producer surplus will be:

A.	$800.
B.	$1,600.
C.	$2,400.
D.	$3,200.

Question 5: For third-degree discrimination to be possible, which of the following features is not required?

		A. market power
		B. prevention of resale
		C. identification of each customer's demand before purchase
		D. customers with different demand curves

Question 6: A golf course has frequent players whose demand is Q_f = 260 - 0.4P and infrequent players whose demand is Q_i = 10 - 0.1P. The combined market demand is Q = 34 - 0.4P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a round of golf are $20. How much higher will the profit be if the golf course uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all golfers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$7.50
C.	$10
D.	$110

Question 7: An airline sells seats on its flights to business travelers whose demand is Q_B = 300 - P and vacation travelers whose demand is Q_V = 150 - 0.5P. The combined market demand is Q = 450 - 1.5P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a seat on a flight are $200. How much higher will profit be if the airline uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all travelers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$250
C.	$400
D.	$1,000

Question 8: If a firm practices third-degree price discrimination, the price charged should be higher in the market where demand is:

	A.	Higher.
	B.	Lower.
	C.	More price elastic.
	D.	Less price is elastic.

Question 9: The key difference between markets where third-degree price discrimination is possible and markets where second-degree price discrimination is possible is whether:

		A. resale is possible.
		B. customers have the same demand curves.
		C. firms have market power.
		D. firms can identify customers' demand before the customers make a purchase.

Question 10: For price discrimination via a quantity discount to work:

		A. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively elastic demand.
		B. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively inelastic demand.
		C. customers who pay a relatively high price must have relatively elastic demand.
		D. customers who pay a relatively low price must have relatively inelastic demand.

Question 11: A firm wants to offer a quantity discount to price-discriminate between buyers who are relatively uninterested in the product and buyers who are obsessively interested in it. The uninterested customers have a demand of Q_U = 30 - 0.5P. The package offered to them contains 10 units of the good at a price of $40 each. Which of the following packages designed for obsessed customers is incentive compatible?

	A.	60 units at a price of $10 each
	B.	40 units at a price of $10 each
	C.	60 units at a price of $20 each
	D.	40 units at a price of $20 each

Question 12: Which of the following conditions do not have to be met in order for indirect price discrimination by versioning to work?

		A.The firm's customers must have different demand curves.
		B. The marginal costs of producing each version of the product must be the same.
		C. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		D. The firm must have market power.

	Willingness to pay (per month)
	Weight machines	Indoor pool
Abe	$60	$50
Betty	50	125
Chris	25	140

QUESTION 13
This table shows the willingness to pay off the only three potential customers of a firm that runs both a weight room and an indoor swimming pool. The weight room and pool each have a constant marginal cost of $20 per month. Which of the following pricing strategies yields the highest producer surplus?

		A. $60 for the weight room, $140 for the pool, or $175 for both
		B. $50 for the weight room, $125 for the pool, or $165 for both
		C. $25 for the weight room, $50 for the pool, or $70 for both
		D. $60 for the weight room, $130 for the pool, or $175 for both

Question 14: Which of the following features is needed to make bundling a possible price discrimination strategy but is not required for any other price discrimination strategies?

		A. Customers must have identical demand curves.
		B. The firm does not learn about customer demand until after purchase.
		C. Demand for two products must be negatively correlated.
		D. The firm must not have market power.

Question 15: Which of the following features is not needed for price discrimination using a two-part tariff to work?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		C. The firm must learn about its customers' demands before purchases are made.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 16: A firm faces a market demand curve P = 50 - 5Q. It has a constant marginal cost of $10. Relative to standard monopoly pricing, how would a block pricing strategy where the first four units can be purchased for a price of $30 each, but two more units can be purchased for an additional $20 each change consumer surplus and producer surplus?

		A. Consumer surplus would decrease by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		B. Consumer surplus would increase by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		C. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $10.
		D. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $20.

Question 17: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, block pricing:

		A. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		B. increases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		C. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.
		D. decreases consumer surplus, decreases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.

Question 18: Which of the following results in the highest amount of producer surplus?

	A.	bundling
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 19: Which of the following results in the highest amount of consumer surplus?

	A.	first-degree price discrimination
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 20: Which of the following results in the highest amount of total surplus?

	A.	third-degree price discrimination
	B.	block pricing
	C.	first-degree price discrimination
	D.	bundling

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Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

ECO380H1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Price Discrimination, Marginal Revenue, Economic Equilibrium

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